M
Michael85
Guest
I am an ex-Catholic who has been attending a Reformed church for the last 4 years and is now seriously considering a return to the Catholic Church. During my time as a Reformed Christian, I have read quite a bit of anti-Catholic material. James White in particular has been a favourite of mine, and I have watched several of his debates with Catholics.
Here is one of his articles attacking Catholic teaching - it’s a fictional dialogue between a Catholic and a Protestant.
One of the things that he mentions is that the Councils of Hippo and Carthage were local councils and therefore not binding on the whole Church. How does a Catholic answer this claim? I do know that the Second Council of Nicea in 787 did declare that the decrees of one of these Councils (I can’t remember which) are to be considered as decrees of an Ecumenical Council. But what about before then?
He also mentions that scholars have said that the Council of Rome never took place. Is there anything that Catholics have written about this?
Another thing that he mentions is that Cardinal Cajetan, in his commentary on the Old Testament, wrote that all the Deuterocanonical books (except Baruch) were counted by St Jerome as outside the Canon and were placed in the Apocrypha. Why would a cardinal write such a thing if the Canon of Scripture had been determined previously (at least by Nicea II)?
Any answers you can give would be great and would help me on my way back to the Church.
Here is one of his articles attacking Catholic teaching - it’s a fictional dialogue between a Catholic and a Protestant.
One of the things that he mentions is that the Councils of Hippo and Carthage were local councils and therefore not binding on the whole Church. How does a Catholic answer this claim? I do know that the Second Council of Nicea in 787 did declare that the decrees of one of these Councils (I can’t remember which) are to be considered as decrees of an Ecumenical Council. But what about before then?
He also mentions that scholars have said that the Council of Rome never took place. Is there anything that Catholics have written about this?
Another thing that he mentions is that Cardinal Cajetan, in his commentary on the Old Testament, wrote that all the Deuterocanonical books (except Baruch) were counted by St Jerome as outside the Canon and were placed in the Apocrypha. Why would a cardinal write such a thing if the Canon of Scripture had been determined previously (at least by Nicea II)?
Any answers you can give would be great and would help me on my way back to the Church.