The Jews and even Christ’s closest disciples could not accept this. After all, how could Christ give them His flesh to eat? So what happens? They all walk away. THOUSANDS of people, who came for more bread and fish, walked away.
Now, Christ, being God, is bound to tell the truth, so can cannot mis-lead people. So, why would he not correct them? I’m sure if he meant it symbolically, he could have easily said that he just meant them to repeat some words that he was to say before he died and then eat bread and drink grapejuice, but, this is NOT what he did.
Hi ctlw83 and everyone else following this post.
First of all I am Catholic and beleive that Jesus was talking about his real presence in the Eucharist in John 6. I have some reservations though about the strength of the argument that Jesus would have corrected his disciples for taking his words too literally if he was speaking figuratively.
It may seem odd that I would argue against this point as a Catholic but I beleive that we should always be discussing in good faith and courtesy and not just blindly follow the arguments of our fellow Catholics. I’ve heard this argument elsewhere from some very well known very well respected Catholics…and I’m not saying it’s wrong but it seems to me it’s a weak argument.
It seems to me that Jesus was (and still is) one of the most misunderstood people in all of history and it seems also to me from the bible that this was, in a sense, meant to be. Now we know that God, though our Lord and God, Jesus Christ calls all to conversion and salvation but it seems that his message is received well only for those who have been prepared by grace or natural good disposition (which too is a grace I suppose) to hear it and accept it.
Some scripture passages:
Matthew 11:25-26 "At the time Jesus declared, “I thank you Father, Lord of heaven and earth, that thou hast hidden these things from the wise and understanding and revealed them to infants; yes, Father, for such was your gracious will.”
and
Luke 8:9-10
And when his disciples asked him what this parable meant, he said, "To you it has been given to know the secrets of the kingdom of God; but for others they are in parables, so that seeing they may not see, and hearing they may not understand.
…show that Jesus allowed misunderstanding sometimes, it seems to have been his style for whatever good purposes God had in mind.
I think that Jesus could have been clearer in John 6. Yes as a Catholic John 6 helped me to have faith in the Eucahrist, and yes I think he was pretty clear with his language and his repetition but there are plenty of very intelligent people that don’t have the same interpretation of those scriptures. Jesus could have explained it more clearly so as to leave no other possible interpretation. So let us not be too judgemental against our separated brethren (…and I’m not talking about Mormonism here.)
So it seems conceivable that if God was speaking figuratively (and let us be clear again I truly believe he wasn’t, that he was speaking of his Eucharistic presence, I’m not arguing against that in the least) that he would have allowed the misunderstanding (hypothetically speaking).
Scott