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jmcrae
Guest
Up until it was infallibly promulgated by Pope Innocent I in 405 AD, you could have referred to it as a “widespread opinion,” and even Bishops were free to disagree with it. Once it was promulgated infallibly, it was no longer permissible to disagree with it - it was an official teaching of the Church, from that point onward.You seem to think that sarcasism is an acceptable substitute for evidence…
Let’s pretend that every Christian from India to England before 393 was officially registered in a congregation legally affiliated with The Catholic Church and accepted with docility all 2,875 points of the Catholic Catechism. Okay. Even if ALL of them believed that the world was flat, that would NOT mean that The Catholic Church made the world flat. You’d simply have a wide-spread opinion.
“The Bible” is the collection of 73 books (including the five Books of Moses) bound into a single volume, translated into a commonly understood language. The first one came into existence in the early 400s AD, when St. Jerome (a Catholic priest acting under orders from the Pope) produced it. Moses did not have “the Bible” and in fact, he had absolutely nothing in writing at all, apart from whatever he wrote himself, together with the tablets of the Ten Commandments. He wasn’t going down to his local Bible Society to read how the ending was going to turn out.The claim is NOT that “Catholics gave us the Bible” (which of course would require that Moses be a member of a congregation legally affiated with The Catholic Church and docilicly affirming all 2,875 points of the Catechism), but that The Catholic Church did.
