D
DustinQuick
Guest
Dear Catholic and Orthodox friends, I would like your (name removed by moderator)ut on this.
If the Chieti Document is signed by Rome, it becomes the Catholic Church’s position on interpreting the role of the Bishop of Rome in the first millennium, which the Orthodox representatives have agreed to. This is so refreshing because I’ve always felt that apologists and polemicists on either side have the tendency to present a one-sided, neat and tidy version of history.
In the section on Universal Primacy, there is a single very noteworthy statement: while appeals were made to Rome by the East, Rome did not have cannonical authority over eastern churches.
Now, if the holy see ratifies this document, does the acceptance of that above statement compromise - or even contradict - the infallible declaration of 1870, wherein it is stated that the church of Rome has, from the beginning, had universal (this would include west and east) and immediate jurisdiction over the Church?
On its face, putting that side by side with “Rome did not have cannonical authority over eastern churches,” seems at best problematic, and at worst, contradictory.
I’m not looking for debate, polemic, strawmen, or ideology, I just would really appreciate your (name removed by moderator)ut.
ecupatria.org/synodality-and-primacy-during-the-first-millennium-towards-a-common-understanding-in-service-to-the-unity-of-the-church/
*Here’s a good article/interview providing background and insight:
aleteia.org/2016/10/03/catholic-and-orthodox-find-common-ground-in-early-church-understanding/?utm_campaign=english_page&utm_medium=aleteia_en&utm_source=Facebook#link_time=1475468917
Now, I would like to foward some questions. If I do end up becoming Orthodox:
Please pray for me.
Dustin
If the Chieti Document is signed by Rome, it becomes the Catholic Church’s position on interpreting the role of the Bishop of Rome in the first millennium, which the Orthodox representatives have agreed to. This is so refreshing because I’ve always felt that apologists and polemicists on either side have the tendency to present a one-sided, neat and tidy version of history.
In the section on Universal Primacy, there is a single very noteworthy statement: while appeals were made to Rome by the East, Rome did not have cannonical authority over eastern churches.
Now, if the holy see ratifies this document, does the acceptance of that above statement compromise - or even contradict - the infallible declaration of 1870, wherein it is stated that the church of Rome has, from the beginning, had universal (this would include west and east) and immediate jurisdiction over the Church?
On its face, putting that side by side with “Rome did not have cannonical authority over eastern churches,” seems at best problematic, and at worst, contradictory.
I’m not looking for debate, polemic, strawmen, or ideology, I just would really appreciate your (name removed by moderator)ut.
ecupatria.org/synodality-and-primacy-during-the-first-millennium-towards-a-common-understanding-in-service-to-the-unity-of-the-church/
*Here’s a good article/interview providing background and insight:
aleteia.org/2016/10/03/catholic-and-orthodox-find-common-ground-in-early-church-understanding/?utm_campaign=english_page&utm_medium=aleteia_en&utm_source=Facebook#link_time=1475468917
Now, I would like to foward some questions. If I do end up becoming Orthodox:
- Can i pray the rosary as a private devotion? Its such a huge part of my life (once to twice daily), I don’t want to give it up.
- Can i hold the immaculate conception as a theological opinion? Some Russian Orthodox have and do, i believe.
- Can i hold that the bishop of rome was given the unique role by christ - not mere historical accident - of pastoring the universal church, but maintaining that second millennium development has gone too far in its exercise?
Please pray for me.
Dustin