F
FiveLinden
Guest
The Gospel is specific that he was speaking to ‘the Jews’. There is no indication that this included women.In John 6, Jesus was speaking to a crowd.
The Gospel is specific that he was speaking to ‘the Jews’. There is no indication that this included women.In John 6, Jesus was speaking to a crowd.
I am sure he means ‘quickening’ when the movement of the foetus is first felt. He thought that was the point of ‘ensoulment’. The Church has a different view today.Not quite. St. Thomas Aquinas goes into detail about it than I can give and I don’t think I can explain it well. I know he explains it here, but I can’t remember what he means by animation (I think it’s before a body is given a soul?). A Thomistic expert is welcomed to clarify and correct me.
I’m sorry, but this is ludicrous.I think having only men receive the body and blood of Christ would make our Church stronger. However to be “fair”, just as in Jesus’s time there were women in the crowds, Catholic women could still attend Mass to hear the word of the Lord…
Uh.Yes but he was talking to a men-only gathering. Maybe only men should do this to have life in them. And I think the Catholic view is that Mary did not need to be saved, as there was never anything to save her from.
Are there no Jewish women?The Gospel is specific that he was speaking to ‘the Jews’. There is no indication that this included women.
I think having only men receive the body and blood of Christ would make our Church stronger. However to be “fair”, just as in Jesus’s time there were women in the crowds, Catholic women could still attend Mass to hear the word of the Lord…
Respectfully opinion only. Stand to be corrected but have this question.He gave his body and blood only to men. Why does this not indicate that women should not receive communion?
As being stated, that Woman cannot be Priest, because of the Priestly Laws, yet are the Priest obeying their own God given Priestly Laws themselves?Woman are now handling and handing out >> Holy Communion, Sacred Most Holy Body of Christ>>> to the laity, taking on the very>>>Sacred Holy Roles preformed only by His Priest, right?
Sacred Holy Rituals which God, has choosen Priest only to preform and will be accepted into His Hands? Sorry confused.
Asking are >>>>Woman already performing as Priest, Priestly duties>>Sacred Holy Rituals, Sacraments>>which is Holy Communion>>>>>>>>>>>>> commanded to be fully performed according by His>> Priestly Laws given unto them, from God?Woman are preforming, handing out from their hands>>>>The Holy Sacred Offering unto the Lord>>>which was commanded by God, within His Leviticus Priestly Laws, be done only by >>>>>>>>HIS Holy Priest, doing so upon His Holy Altar?
I was quoting FCPR. He put the word in quote marks.Why do you put fair in quotations marks? Isn’t fairness a quality of God?
There is also no indication that it didn’t.The Gospel is specific that he was speaking to ‘the Jews’. There is no indication that this included women.
Very good point. Why, if the ordination of women is not possible because of the example he set, is the ordination of gentiles possible? Was Paul in his teaching consistent?First, He was talking to a Jews-only gathering. Does that mean only Jews need eat His body and drink His blood?