The Commandments should not be followed ... Part 2

[mikeledes]

Why is this a nebulous idea when much of what you need is in your own response.

I would make a couple of statements for clarification of some of your points. Please note that the Catholic view is the biblical view and that there is nothing arbitrary or capricious in how God gives grace. God clearly desires that all men be saved. Sufficient grace is given to all, and God will judge all.

There is mystery in how God’s gifts are given and how grace works within each of us. There is mystery in how God predestines the elect. We see through a glass dimly, as Paul says, and we must not worry about those things which are beyond our human understanding. Instead, we must trust in God’s grace and mercy.

Salvation is God’s gift to us and that is what He does. The wages of sin is death, and that is what we do. This simple set of facts is pointed out by Paul in Romans 6:23. They are simple facts, but we do not fully comprehend how God’s grace comes into play nor do we comprehend the full dimension of predestination from God’s point of view.

We have not counseled God and scripture says that He works in mysterious ways.

We only need to be satisfied with His grace and mercy, and you can be confident that “God is at work in you, both to will and to work for his good pleasure.” and that we are to “do all things without grumbling or questioning,”[Phill 2:13-14] Ours is not to fully know and understand the “how.” Ours is to receive the gift of grace and to live in it.

God Bless,
Michael

 

[BRB]

I have a question. You believe that a person can lose their salvation, right?

Only if we knowingly/willingly forfeit our salvation gift via apostasy. Did Judas do this? Perhaps, but I think he never was a true believer … he stole money from money purse, loving another Lord more than Christ.

However, I believe OSAS is the valid teaching … on the basis of teaching of Christ’s prayer to the Father, as reported to us in John’s gospel.

John 17:11-13 “Holy Father, KEEP THEM [disciples] in thy name, which thou hast given me, that they may be one, even as we are one. While I was with them, I kept them in thy name, which thou hast given me; I have GUARDED them, and NONE of them have been lost but the son of perdition[satan], that the scriptures might be fulfilled.”

John 17:16-17 “They are NOT of the world, even as I am not of the world. SANCTIFY THEM in the truth; thy WORD is truth.”

John 17: 20-24 “I do not pray for these only, but also for those [the CHURCH] who BELIEVE in me through their word, that they may all be one; even as thou, Father, art in me, and I in thee, that they also BE IN US, so that the world may believe that thou hast sent me. The GLORY [Holy Spirit] which thou hast given me I have given to them, that they may be one even as we are one. I in them and thou in me, that they may become PERFECTLY ONE, so that the world may know that thou hast sent me and hast loved them even as thou hast loved me. Father, I desire that they also, whom thou hast given me, may BE WITH ME WHERE I AM, to BEHOLD MY GLORY which thou has given me in thy love for me before the foundation of the world.”

So … there you go. Christ seals the true believers of the Church into him via H.S. We become one with the Trinity, Christ guards us to keep us faithful. He asks the Father to let us see him in heaven … to behold his Glory.

Will the Father ever let down the Son … and deny this request of Christ ? I think the answer is a slam dunk for OSAS belief.

Salvation assurance is GUARANTEED by the TRINITY … per first person witness of John the Beloved, whose word on the WORD is true.

 

[Pax]

Where does it say in scripture that Judas was not a believer or that he was not a “true believer?” I don’t know of any such verse. Judas was with Peter and the other apostles when Peter made his confession of faith and none of the twelve contradicted him. Likewise, at the end of the marriage feast of Cana we are told in John 2:11 that " This, the first of his signs, Jesus did at Cana in Galilee, and manifested his glory; and his disciples believed in him." Judas was a disciple and he believed in him.

Here is some more evidence:

Matt 14:33
And those in the boat worshiped him, saying, “Truly you are the Son of God.” [This included Judas]

Moreover, when Jesus sent the disciples out in two’s they were given power to “Heal the sick, raise the dead, cleanse lepers, cast out demons.”[Matt 10:8] Judas was a believer, but he was an evil doer and betrayed his Lord and Savior.

Stealing from the common purse does not make a person a non-believer or remove them from the group of “true believers.” Anyone can fall into sin and most of us commit some kind of sins now and then.

You quoted John 17:11-13 which says:

“Holy Father, KEEP THEM [disciples] in thy name, which thou hast given me, that they may be one, even as we are one. While I was with them, I kept them in thy name, which thou hast given me; I have GUARDED them, and NONE of them have been lost but the son of perdition[satan], that the scriptures might be fulfilled.”

Please note that this passage only indicates that Judas was lost; it does not indicate that he never believed. God desires that all men be saved and that included Judas. Unfortunately, some are lost anyway and that includes some of those that believe. Turning away from God and choosing something else is all it takes. Paul lists numerous sins that fall into the category of those that bring on damnation. Judas’s sin is but one of them.

 

[Philthy]

Only if we knowingly/willingly forfeit our salvation gift via apostasy. Did Judas do this? Perhaps, but I think he never was a true believer … he stole money from money purse, loving another Lord more than Christ.

Oh sure, BRB. A “believer” would never do any of those things. Are you really that separated from reality or are you completed blinded by your desire to cling to OSAS at all costs? The NT has plenty of warnings to believers regarding the eternal consequences of certain sins. You choose to ignore clear, unambiguous Scripture written specifically to “believers” while embracing ambiguous, less specific Scripture as being the entire Gospel.

However, I believe OSAS is the valid teaching … on the basis of teaching of Christ’s prayer to the Father, as reported to us in John’s gospel.

This nothing but a perfect example of your Scriptural selectivity in rationalizing OSAS.

John 17: 20-24 “I do not pray for these only, but also for those [the CHURCH] who BELIEVE in me through their word, that they may all be one; even as thou, Father, art in me, and I in thee, that they also BE IN US, so that the world may believe that thou hast sent me. The GLORY [Holy Spirit] which thou hast given me I have given to them, that they may be one even as we are one. I in them and thou in me, that they may become PERFECTLY ONE, so that the world may know that thou hast sent me and hast loved them even as thou hast loved me. Father, I desire that they also, whom thou hast given me, may BE WITH ME WHERE I AM, to BEHOLD MY GLORY which thou has given me in thy love for me before the foundation of the world.”

So … there you go. Christ seals the true believers of the Church into him via H.S. We become one with the Trinity, Christ guards us to keep us faithful. He asks the Father to let us see him in heaven … to behold his Glory.

Will the Father ever let down the Son … and deny this request of Christ ? I think the answer is a slam dunk for OSAS belief.

Honestly, this is a pretty weak attempt to cram OSAS down our throats. As has already been mentioned repeatedly, you are ignoring all the admonitions to the believers regarding the eternal consequences of certain sin.
With respect to your comments above, Christs prayer repeatedly uses the term MAY - it does not mean it will come to pass. It is a prayer that they MAY all be one, NOT that they WILL all be one.
Most especially weak, however, is your attempt - again playing on emotions - to ask “Will the Father ever let down the Son…and deny this request…?” Are you so blind in your desire to believe what you already wish to believe that you have forgotten Christs prayer in Gethsemane? “Father let this cup pass me by, yet not my will but thy will be done” I think we all know how the Father answered that particular prayer. Some of us wish to ignore it, however.

 

[moondweller]

For it is not those who hear the law who are just in the sight of God; rather, those who observe the law will be justified. (Rom 2:13)

You’re lifting this verse out of context and applying it out of context. All Paul is saying in that verse is that possession of Divine truth can avail nothing with God apart from subjection and obedience to it. Paul is exposing the subtle power of the deceitfulness of sin over the self-righteous, religious, heart that settles down to a false peace because of merely knowing God’s truth.

But neither does he say in that verse that any will be justified by doing, but that doing, not mere hearing, is what God’s judgment calls for. See in context with verse 12 which says:Rom 2:12 "For all who have sinned without the Law will also perish without the Law, and all who have sinned under the Law will be judged by the Law;"As you read further along in Paul’s argument we see that the blood of Christ is the ONLY procuring cause for our being accounted righteous before God, and FAITH (alone) the sole condition:Rom 3:22-24 "…even {the} righteousness of God through faith in Jesus Christ for all those who believe; for there is no distinction; for all (Jews under the Law; Gentiles, a law unto themselves) sinned (i.e., in Adam) and (continually) fall short of the glory of God, being justified as a gift by His grace through the redemption which is in Christ Jesus (the blood of the cross);"And further, says Paul:Rom 3:27-30 "Where then is boasting? It is excluded. By what kind of law? Of works? No, but by a law of faith. For we maintain that a man is justified by faith apart from works of law (Mosaic: Jews; conscience: Gentiles).

Or is God {the God} of Jews only? Is He not {the God} of Gentiles also? Yes, of Gentiles also (who did not have the Law), since indeed God who will justify the circumcision (Jew) by faith and the uncircumcision (Gentile) through faith is one".

 

[moondweller]

IMHO this is impractical blubbering. What does anyone do with the information? Sorry to say so, but you need to get down to day to day existence. The 10 Commandments are a subset of the Law of Love. It is true that we don’t “get saved” by fulfilling the 10 Commandments “on our own” - we need a Saviour and God has provided one. Can we all get past that now? I know you “faith aloners” wish to turn every single topic into a discussion of “faith alone”, but there is more to our spiritual journey than its beginning. So while its true that we all need a Savior, it is also true that once we have access to the Holy Spirit that we have the ability - and responsibility - to “walk in the Spirit” which enables us to live a life of love. Such a life does not violate the 10 Commandments without the potential for eternal consequence.

Rom 4:13 "For the promise to Abraham or to his descendants that he would be heir of the world was not through law, but through the righteousness of faith. For if those who are of law are heirs, faith is made void and the promise is nullified; for the Law brings about wrath, but where there is no law, there also is no violation."The true believer is not under law, hence, “no violation” (transgression of law). Through faith in Christ he is brought into a grace relationship with God, apart from the principle of law.Rom 4:16 “For this reason {it is} by faith (alone), in order that {it may be} in accordance with grace (alone), so that the promise will be guaranteed (assurance) to all the descendants, not only to those who are of the Law (Jews), but also to those who are of the faith of Abraham, who is the father of us all (Jew and Gentile believers),”

 

[Pax]

But neither does he say in that verse that any will be justified by doing, but that doing, not mere hearing, is what God’s judgment calls for. See in context with verse 12 which says:Rom 2:12 "For all who have sinned without the Law will also perish without the Law, and all who have sinned under the Law will be judged by the Law;"As you read further along in Paul’s argument we see that the blood of Christ is the ONLY procuring cause for our being accounted righteous before God, and FAITH (alone) the sole condition:Rom 3:22-24 "…even {the} righteousness of God through faith in Jesus Christ for all those who believe; for there is no distinction; for all (Jews under the Law; Gentiles, a law unto themselves) sinned (i.e., in Adam) and (continually) fall short of the glory of God, being justified as a gift by His grace through the redemption which is in Christ Jesus (the blood of the cross);"And further, says Paul:Rom 3:27-30 "Where then is boasting? It is excluded. By what kind of law? Of works? No, but by a law of faith. For we maintain that a man is justified by faith apart from works of law (Mosaic: Jews; conscience: Gentiles).

Or is God {the God} of Jews only? Is He not {the God} of Gentiles also? Yes, of Gentiles also (who did not have the Law), since indeed God who will justify the circumcision (Jew) by faith and the uncircumcision (Gentile) through faith is one".

How is it that you can quote these passages and not recognize the obvious point that Paul makes about faith and works? The apostle is clearly talking about the works of the OT Jewish law and the works of the gentiles in their pagan religions. Their works are outside of faith in Jesus Christ our lord and savior. It is for this reason that Paul says in Rom 14:23 that “whatever does not proceed from faith is sin.”

When Paul says this he means that the works of the OT Jewish law and the works of the gentiles before their false gods “fall short.” That is the meaning of sin particularly in this passage.

Paul is not talking about works in the gospel religion of Christianity and he never once discounts Christian works as part the gospel of Jesus. That is because Christian works are not done outside of faith and are therefore not sin. Christian works do not fall short because they are by way of grace, and they are prepared by the Father in advance of our justification.

This is a crucial issue and it is at the center of your confusion when it comes to the connection of faith and works in Christianity.

 

[moondweller]

How many times have you been corrected on this MD? 50? More? Either you are incredibly dense or you prefer to cling to your own notion of what the Catholic faith is. No one is saved apart from Grace. Period. We all agree.

I do not agree with this Catholic statement. The Apostolic message is not, “no one is saved APART FROM grace,” but “For BY GRACE you have been saved THROUGH FAITH…,”

“Apart from grace” to the Catholic mind means the enabling power of the Holy Spirit to assist Catholics in the process of their salvation. Catholics are not taught that they are “under grace” but that they are in need of grace to aid them in not breaking the Ten Commandments by which they can be eternally condemned according to its doctrine of “mortal sin.” That grave sin which destroys the “initial” righteousness"infused" into their soul upon ritual (water) Baptism.

Hence, the Catholic is actually “under law” for condemnation - not “under grace.” So, neither Paul nor I agree.

Although we are FREELY GIVEN access to eternal life, we must also accept it and live in it.

It is not taught in the Scriptures that the believer is “freely given access” to eternal life. But is gifted eternal life in Christ Jesus:Rom 6:23 “For the wages of sin is death (all sinned, in Adam, in Adam all die), but the free gift of God is eternal life in Christ Jesus our Lord.”

John 3:36 “He who believes in the Son has eternal life; but he who does not obey (the equivalent of belief, see Jn. 14:1) the Son will not see life, but the wrath of God abides on him.”

John 5:24 “Truly, truly, I say to you, he who hears My word, and believes Him who sent Me, has eternal life, and does not come into judgment, but has passed out of death into life.”

John 6:47 "Truly, truly, I say to you, he who believes has eternal life."Your doctrine that the gift is eternal but one’s possession of it is not is pure sophistry.

That requires SOME effort on our parts.

It requires belief on man’s part. In unbelief men insist that God reward them salvation based on at least “some effort” of their own.

The fact that it does does not obviate the reality that we are still entirely dependent upon God’s grace for salvation.

You mean God’s “grace” to enable you to exercise the proper “effort” in order to merit your salvation. That’s not the “reality” of Divine grace (unmerited, undeserved favor). The grace by which HE SAVES through faith.

Grace alone is necessary and sufficient; our works alone are necessary YET INSUFFICIENT.

Sophistry.Rom 11:6 "But if it is by grace, it is no longer on the basis of works, otherwise grace is no longer grace."Hence, works are not only unnecessary for salvation, but altogether INEFFICIENT, and God’s sovereign grace through Christ, altogether SUFFICIENT.

You constantly shoot yourself in the foot with this argument anyhow. According to your logic above, "How is grace still grace if it requires faith?

Grace doesn’t “require” faith. God Himself saves the sinner according to His sovereign grace (unmerited, undeserved favor) upon the sinner’s faith in Christ alone.

Faith in God’s testimony (Word) concerning the redemptive work of the Son on our behalf honors Him. And the believer’s complete rest in the sufficiency of that finished work then becomes the basis and catalyst of true worship (Jn. 4:23).

 

[moondweller]

Where has anyone here encouraged breaking the 10, or other cannon law?

The phrase, “breaking the 10” implies being under the “10” (Law) as a rule of life.Rom 4:15 "…for the Law brings about wrath, but where there is no law, there also is no violation (“breaking of Law”),"says Paul.

 

[Catholic_Dude]

How is it that you can quote these passages and not recognize the obvious point that Paul makes about faith and works? The apostle is clearly talking about the works of the OT Jewish law and the works of the gentiles in their pagan religions. Their works are outside of faith in Jesus Christ our lord and savior. It is for this reason that Paul says in Rom 14:23 that “whatever does not proceed from faith is sin.”

When Paul says this he means that the works of the OT Jewish law and the works of the gentiles before their false gods “fall short.” That is the meaning of sin particularly in this passage.

Paul is not talking about works in the gospel religion of Christianity and he never once discounts Christian works as part the gospel of Jesus. That is because Christian works are not done outside of faith and are therefore not sin. Christian works do not fall short because they are by way of grace, and they are prepared by the Father in advance of our justification.

This is a crucial issue and it is at the center of your confusion when it comes to the connection of faith and works in Christianity.

Gal 3:
Is the law, therefore, opposed to the promises of God? Absolutely not! For if a law had been given that could impart life, then righteousness would certainly have come by the law.
The Mosaic Law was never intended to save, it was not its purpose and it lacked the power to do so. This is what most Protestants miss when they see Paul contrasting faith to works of the law. The Mosaic Law was never the basis by which men were made Adopted Children of God, the basis was being united to Christ the Vine. St Paul is not attacking the concept of being bound to commandments of God, 1 Cor 7:
19Circumcision is nothing and uncircumcision is nothing. Keeping God’s commands is what counts.

 

[Catholic_Dude]

The phrase, “breaking the 10” implies being under the “10” (Law) as a rule of life.Rom 4:15 "…for the Law brings about wrath, but where there is no law, there also is no violation (“breaking of Law”),"says Paul.

That is talking about the written teachings, so, for example, nobody would be guilty of not offering a sacrifice if no law existed ordering sacrifices. The “natural law” has always existed, written on man’s heart, that is why Cain murdering Able was still the grave sin of murder even before an explicit “do not kill” message from Heaven.

 

[moondweller]

So how does a believer conduct himself properly?

How do you think a true believer who was convicted of sin by the Holy Spirit, turned to Christ in order to be justified by faith, yet lives daily in the reality that it was his sins that put his Savior on the cross, would now conduct his life? By the philosophy of those who pervert the gospel of grace?Rom 6:1 “What shall we say then? Are we to continue in sin so that grace may increase?”“May it never be!” says Paul. But instead motivated, daily, by this divine revelation:Rom 6:2 “How shall we who died (with Christ) to sin still live in it?”

How is this experiential sanctification accomplished in the believer?

By walking by faith on a daily basis. A true believer does not/can not live on yesterday’s faith.

What does it involve?

Truth

Do all true believers persevere in this experiential sanctification?

To a lesser or greater degree. It’s the believer’s choice. Nevertheless, he is still, according to sovereign grace, positionally sanctified in Christ, and guaranteed *ultimate * sanctification (body, soul and spirit) at the resurrection or translation if living at the time of Christ’s return for His church (Jn. 14:3).

 

[moondweller]

That is talking about the written teachings, so, for example, nobody would be guilty of not offering a sacrifice if no law existed ordering sacrifices. The “natural law” has always existed, written on man’s heart, that is why Cain murdering Able was still the grave sin of murder even before an explicit “do not kill” message from Heaven.

It is true men, being created morally conscious creatures, were responsible to God for their conduct, and upon this basis alone He destroyed all but eight persons in the Deluge. But from Adam to Moses no Law existed.

Stealing, murder, lying, adultery, etc. were all sins prior to the Law, but through Law those sins were defined, and those sinners who committed them became transgressors of specific commandments (Law).

But Paul explains:Gal 3:22 "But the Scripture has shut up everyone (Jew and Gentile) under sin, so that the promise by faith in Jesus Christ might be given to those who believe.

But before faith came, we (Jews) were kept in custody under the law, being shut up to the faith which was later to be revealed. Therefore the Law has become our tutor {to lead us} to Christ, so that we may be justified by faith.

But now that faith has come, we are no longer under a tutor (Law). For you are all sons of God through faith in Christ Jesus."The age of law ended with Christ. We’ve entered an age of faith alone: “For by grace you have been saved through faith…”

 

[Pax]

It is true men, being created morally conscious creatures, were responsible to God for their conduct, and upon this basis alone He destroyed all but eight persons in the Deluge. But from Adam to Moses no Law existed.

Stealing, murder, lying, adultery, etc. were all sins prior to the Law, but through Law those sins were defined, and those sinners who committed them became transgressors of specific commandments (Law).

But Paul explains:Gal 3:22 "But the Scripture has shut up everyone (Jew and Gentile) under sin, so that the promise by faith in Jesus Christ might be given to those who believe.

But before faith came, we (Jews) were kept in custody under the law, being shut up to the faith which was later to be revealed. Therefore the Law has become our tutor {to lead us} to Christ, so that we may be justified by faith.

But now that faith has come, we are no longer under a tutor (Law). For you are all sons of God through faith in Christ Jesus."The age of law ended with Christ. We’ve entered an age of faith alone: “For by grace you have been saved through faith…”

True…we are no longer under a tutor…we are under grace. Understanding and appreciating this is what you seem to be missing when it comes to the gospel of Jesus in terms of faith and works.

 

[Pax]

The age of law ended with Christ. We’ve entered an age of faith alone

Then why does the NT speak of the law of Christ, and where does it say in scripture that we’ve entered the age of “faith alone?” Scripture says no such thing. Scripture only says that we are
“not saved by faith alone.”[James 2:24]

 

[Catholic_Dude]

How do you think a true believer who was convicted of sin by the Holy Spirit, turned to Christ in order to be justified by faith, yet lives daily in the reality that it was his sins that put his Savior on the cross, would now conduct his life? By the philosophy of those who pervert the gospel of grace?Rom 6:1 “What shall we say then? Are we to continue in sin so that grace may increase?”“May it never be!” says Paul. But instead motivated, daily, by this divine revelation:Rom 6:2 "How shall we who died (with Christ) to sin still live in it?"By walking by faith on a daily basis. A true believer does not/can not live on yesterday’s faith.TruthTo a lesser or greater degree. It’s the believer’s choice. Nevertheless, he is still, according to sovereign grace, positionally sanctified in Christ, and guaranteed *ultimate * sanctification (body, soul and spirit) at the resurrection or translation if living at the time of Christ’s return for His church (Jn. 14:3).

You are badly misreading those “sin so that grace may increase” passages. Those passages are not saying you are free to sin without consequences to your soul. Those passages are only saying that God brings a greater good out of any sin He allows, they say nothing about the punishment of the sinner. The sinner who causes the sins is subject to punishment, including being subject to slavery again (eg Gal 5:1ff), he is not off the hook.

 

[Catholic_Dude]

True…we are no longer under a tutor…we are under grace. Understanding and appreciating this is what you seem to be missing when it comes to the gospel of Jesus in terms of faith and works.

Amen! Not being under the Mosaic Law does not mean there is now no laws, no commandments, that is fallacious reasoning.

 

[moondweller]

True…we are no longer under a tutor…we are under grace.

Gentiles never were. They were introduced into “this grace in which we stand” through FAITH alone (Rom. 5:1-2).

Understanding and appreciating this is what you seem to be missing when it comes to the gospel of Jesus in terms of faith and works.

“Understanding and appreciating this is what you seem to be missing when it comes to the gospel of Jesus in terms of faith -]and works/-].”

 

[Mannyfit75]

Gentiles never were. They were introduced into “this grace in which we stand” through FAITH alone (Rom. 5:1-2).“Understanding and appreciating this is what you seem to be missing when it comes to the gospel of Jesus in terms of faith -]and works/-].”

You know that translation is incorrect. Roman 5:1-2 states the following:

Rom.5
[1]
Therefore, since we are justified by faith, we have peace with God through our Lord Jesus Christ. [2] Through him we have obtained access to this grace in which we stand, and we rejoice in our hope of sharing the glory of God.

Even the KJV Bible has it right.

Therefore being justified by faith, we have peace with God through our Lord Jesus Christ: Roman 5:1-
Martin Luther just added the word alone. The original Codex does have alone in Roman 5:1-2.

 

[moondweller]

Where does it say in scripture that Judas was not a believer or that he was not a “true believer?” I don’t know of any such verse.

John 6:70 "Jesus answered them, “Did I Myself not choose you, the twelve, and {yet} one of you is a devil?”

You quoted John 17:11-13 which says:

“Holy Father, KEEP THEM [disciples] in thy name, which thou hast given me, that they may be one, even as we are one. While I was with them, I kept them in thy name, which thou hast given me; I have GUARDED them, and NONE of them have been lost but the son of perdition[satan], that the scriptures might be fulfilled.”

“Son of perdition” is a direct reference to Judas. He was never a “son of God” through faith in Christ Jesus (Gal. 3:26), but is called by Christ Himself “a devil” and the “son of perdition.”

Also, take note that when Jesus said His High Priestly prayer in the upper room, on behalf of His disciples, Judas was not present (Jn. 13:27-30). He was not included but was busy doing the Devil’s work.

Please note that this passage only indicates that Judas was lost; it does not indicate that he never believed.

“Son of perdition” means he never believed, Pax.

God desires that all men be saved and that included Judas.

Men are saved through faith in Christ, Judas never believed in Him. Don’t revise history, especially Biblical history.

Unfortunately, some are lost anyway and that includes some of those that believe. Turning away from God and choosing something else is all it takes. Paul lists numerous sins that fall into the category of those that bring on damnation. Judas’s sin is but one of them.

Judas’ sin was unbelief. That is the only sin that causes damnation:John 3:18 “He who believes in Him is not judged; **he who does not believe **has been judged already, because he has not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God.”

John 5:24 ¶ “Truly, truly, I say to you, he who hears My word, and believes Him who sent Me, has eternal life, and does not come into judgment, but has passed out of death into life.”…says Christ.1 Tim 1:15 “It is a trustworthy statement, deserving full acceptance, that Christ Jesus came into the world to save sinners, among whom I am foremost.”…says Paul.