The Commandments should not be followed ... Part 2

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You’re extrapolating something out of the passage that is not there. “Abide in Me” is not a reference to the believer’s new position “in Christ,” his new identity in Christ resurrected, the “Last Adam.” This eternal position is no more volitional than is the natural man’s position “in Adam.”

The phrase, “abide in Me” is totally volitional.


The scriptures under scrutiny are, indeed, related to one’s position. Your comment to the contrary is simply an assertion without foundation. Let’s see what scripture has to say in regards to “abide in me” or “abide in Christ” as “positional”[to use your terminology].

John 6:56
He who eats my flesh and drinks my blood abides in me, and I in him.[obviously positional]

John 15:4
Abide in me, and I in you. As the branch cannot bear fruit by itself, unless it abides in the vine, neither can you, unless you abide in me.

This quote from John 15:4 says “Abide in me, and I in you.” These two go together and this is clearly “positional” by your use of the word. Likewise, only those that are positionally in Christ have the possibility of bearing fruit. Those that do not bear fruit are positionally removed and burned. This sets the stage for the rest of the passage that you are disputing.

Then there are these passages using “abide”, and they are all positional.

1 John 2:-6
He who says “I know him” but disobeys his commandments is a liar, and the truth is not in him; but whoever keeps his word, in him truly love for God is perfected. By this we may be sure that we are in him: he who says he abides in him ought to walk in the same way in which he walked.

1John 2:10
He who loves his brother abides in the light, and in it there is no cause for stumbling.

1 John 2:24-25
Let what you heard from the beginning abide in you. If what you heard from the beginning abides in you, then you will abide in the Son and in the Father. And this is what he has promised us, eternal life.

1 John 2:28-29
And now, little children, abide in him, so that when he appears we may have confidence and not shrink from him in shame at his coming. If you know that he is righteous, you may be sure that every one who does right is born of him.

1 John 3:14-15
We know that we have passed out of death into life, because we love the brethren. He who does not love abides in death. Any one who hates his brother is a murderer, and you know that no murderer has eternal life abiding in him.

I found other passages using abide but didn’t list them because the above should be sufficient. All of the passages I came across using this terminology are in the context of what you call “positional.”
 
The scriptures under scrutiny are, indeed, related to one’s position. Your comment to the contrary is simply an assertion without foundation. Let’s see what scripture has to say in regards to “abide in me” or “abide in Christ” as “positional”[to use your terminology].

John 6:56
He who eats my flesh and drinks my blood abides in me, and I in him.[obviously positional]
Yes. But Jesus in this context is not instructing the believer to abide in Him. This is not volitional. Your problem with interpreting Scripture, Pax, is you often fail to consider the context.
John 15:4
Abide in me, and I in you. As the branch cannot bear fruit by itself, unless it abides in the vine, neither can you, unless you abide in me.
This is volitional.

One does not bear fruit in this life simply because he is “in Christ.” He must volitionally and consciously depend upon Christ in his service as the condition of fruitfulness. As Paul said, “I can do all things through Him who strengthens me” (Phil. 4:13).

The believer’s new and eternal position in the resurrected Christ was accomplished by God Himself upon belief in Him. It has nothing to do with fruit bearing.

You are doctrinally confused.
 
And what did you find in P2 that contradicts what he said in P1?
Nothing…however, it helps a lot when you look at the previous discussion thread on this topic from three whole years ago.

There were quite a few n-Cs/a-Cs who tried to use this to make their cases, but it just doesn’t wash. Read the other thread. 🤷

Still, just for example.
  1. Justification and Confession
I said at the beginning that gratuitous justification by faith should transform itself into lived experience for the believer. We Catholics have an enormous advantage in this: the sacraments, and in particular, the sacrament of reconciliation. This offers us an excellent and infallible means to experience anew each time justification by faith. In it is renewed what happened once in baptism, in which, says Paul, the Christian has been "washed, sanctified and justified"
(cf. 1 Corinthians 6:11).
 
Can you quote for me the verse in Gen. 22 where God again justifies Abraham for offering up Isaac?
No - I dont believe I claimed that I could, though. You had requested it be “recorded” in SCRIPTURE, right?. James is Scripture and James records that Abraham was “justified when he offered Isaac up on the altar”. Do you deny that James records it, or do you deny that James is scripture? You are being very stubborn, again, and to the detriment of all the good that you have to offer.
Can you show me where it’s recorded* in Gen 22* that “credit” of righteousness granted Abraham was incapable of being added to at a later point in time? Can you show me anywhere in Scripture where it says that?

Matt: 7-2 "For in the way you judge, you will be judged; and by your standard of measure, it will be measured to you. "
 
Yes. But Jesus in this context is not instructing the believer to abide in Him. This is not volitional. Your problem with interpreting Scripture, Pax, is you often fail to consider the context.This is volitional.

One does not bear fruit in this life simply because he is “in Christ.” He must volitionally and consciously depend upon Christ in his service as the condition of fruitfulness. As Paul said, “I can do all things through Him who strengthens me” (Phil. 4:13).

The believer’s new and eternal position in the resurrected Christ was accomplished by God Himself upon belief in Him. It has nothing to do with fruit bearing.

You are doctrinally confused.
It is the context that was used to prove the point. Yours is merely an opinion without foundational support. Moreover, it has plenty to do with bearing fruit as these verses and others make clear.
 
No - I dont believe I claimed that I could, though. You had requested it be “recorded” in SCRIPTURE, right?. James is Scripture and James records that Abraham was “justified when he offered Isaac up on the altar”. Do you deny that James records it, or do you deny that James is scripture?Does James actually record that God justified Abraham AGAIN at the time of offering up Isaac? NO! He cites only Gen. 15:6 (Ja. 2:23).

In your effort to introduce an unbiblical doctrine, i.e., multiple justifications based on works, you completely miss the point James is making.

But the bottom line remains, James quotes Gen. 15:6 ONLY. He can cite no other occasion where God justified Abraham - and that based on his belief in Him alone. Paul, in fact, builds his doctrine of justification by faith alone by citing this one and only passage:Rom 4:2 For if Abraham was justified by works, he has something to boast about, but not before God. "For what does the Scripture say? “ABRAHAM BELIEVED GOD, AND IT WAS CREDITED TO HIM AS RIGHTEOUSNESS.” Now to the one who works, his wage is not credited as a favor, but as what is due. But to the one who does not work, but believes in Him who justifies the ungodly, his faith is credited as righteousness,"Both James and Paul can cite only ONE occasion where it is recorded that God justified Abraham.
Can you show me where it’s recorded in Gen 22 that “credit” of righteousness granted Abraham was incapable of being added to at a later point in time?
 
Since you are in agreement, perhaps you can explain how a person does not remain in Christ and still be saved? Or are you saying that someone that is no longer a member of Christ’s body, a branch removed from the True Vine, can still be saved?

God Bless,
Michael
The only way that could be is if the branch fall off, didn’t wither and the fire wasn’t really fire, so it didn’t get burned up in the fire. As I write this, I know it sound rediculous, but, I just can’t fathom that this Scripture is so misinterpreted out of context. Remain IN Christ, IN Christ, means not away from Christ, not in a state of sin by actions. Because we ALL do know that the Bible does tell us that our actions make a difference between going to heaven and going to hell. If we have free will to choose to do good, then we have free will to choose to bad. We have to chosse very carefully. Believing in Jesus as Lord and our Savior is paramount, but we also have to Do something - LOVE (love means action) - and, we also have to choose our actions wisely. It isn’t just given to us, we have to work for it while staying in grace.
 
The word “meno” means to stay or continue, as Jesus clearly means when he says the branch must stay in the vine in order to bear fruit:

So when Christ says “abide in me”, what does He mean? He means to stay in Him, to stay in Christ. If we do not stay in him, we cannot be saved, hence the fate of the branches that do not abide in Him. Just as a branch must stay in the vine, we must stay in Christ. 🙂
I think about it this way, “Abide in Me” has a different meaning than “Believe in Me” Abide means to stay in grace with Me, out of sin, not away from Me. Believe in Me, means belief in Jesus as Lord, the Only Son of God, the One that died for our sins, TRUST in Him, etc…

Entirely two different meanings. So, you could say, “I abide in you because I believe in you”, or " I abide in you through your grace by having faith because I believe in you."
 
I should have added above that I don’t see abiding in Christ as something that has a lot of wiggle room. You either “choose” to live by God’s will, or you choose to live by your own will. The “will” that you choose will put you in THE position you abide in whether it is abiding in Christ or abiding away from Christ. Abiding In Christ means living in His grace, through faith and actions (that are necessary to attain grace). Abiding away from Christ means living out of grace, still having faith, but by actions that have separated us from His grace. We cannot achieve heaven if we die while we are not in grace with Jesus. Believing in Him, having Faith is only part of it. Jesus’ work has all been done, ours hasn’t. Grace is achieved through faith doing all that we are supposed to do and not doing what we are not supposed to do.
 
Round 1 went well. MD and Sandusky scored some initial points. But, Guano and Pax had some key rebutals. Tef also filled in admirably for the Catholic tagteam.
Having not read all the posts, here or on the previous thread, I’m sure it was probably already mentioned that Jesus said the 10 commandments were to be followed. He mentions 6 of them here.

Mt 19:
**The Rich Young Man **

16Now a man came up to Jesus and asked, “Teacher, what good thing must I do to get eternal life?”

17"Why do you ask me about what is good?" Jesus replied. “There is only One who is good. If you want to enter life, obey the commandments.”
18"Which ones?" the man inquired.
Jesus replied, " ‘Do not murder, do not commit adultery, do not steal, do not give false testimony, 19honor your father and mother,’ and ‘love your neighbor as yourself.’"
20"All these I have kept," the young man said. “What do I still lack?” 21Jesus answered, “If you want to be perfect, go, sell your possessions and give to the poor, and you will have treasure in heaven. Then come, follow me.”
 
OSAS is simply untrue.
From who’s perspective ? Your’s or God’s.

First off, we know we never can fully know the state of another’s soul. Thus, we are not to judge another … with regards to their salvation.

So, if I say to you … I’m assured of my salvation. Can you with complete confidence and with infallible wisdom judge my situation ?

The best you can do … is to speak for yourself. Your ‘personal experience of reality’ is all you can confidently know & testify to.
You can quote us scriptures … but, that’s hearsay evidence for you. Can Paul’s life experience and word testimony thereof be yours ?

Yes, indeed it can …but, not until you internalize his message, not until your soul is transformed by that message, not until that message is ‘consumed’ and becomes ‘recreated’ within your mind, body, & soul. Not until it becomes your personal testimony and daily reality.

If MD told you … ‘I’ve had a private revelation from my Lord, and been assurred I’m among his elect’ … would you not ‘respect’ his belief on the matter ? What’s the point in trying to talk another out of a ‘harmless’ belief ?

Do you think the Pope has any ‘doubts’ about his calling and life mission ? Now, he’s more humble than the laity, and might not wish to speak of his private revelations … out of concern it might create angst in another not sharing his salvation convictions.

Even though the Church does not ‘stress’ salvation assurance … I don’t think you will find them calling someone who believes it heretical, and demanding a recant.

The CCC does acknowledge that some can enjoy more assurance than another. Basically, as long as one is fully confessed, filled with God’s spiritual presence, and remains a faithful disciple … there is no reason to lack assurace. Some can maintain such purity and holiness for long periods, years, even lifetimes.

Maybe the Protestants know something in this regard you don’t 🙂
 
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moondweller:
Does James actually record that God justified Abraham AGAIN at the time of offering up Isaac? NO! He cites only Gen. 15:6 (Ja. 2:23).
He actually records that Abraham was (a) justified by offering Isaac and that he was justified (b) at the time of offering up Isaac. Here, read it again: Abraham was “**justified (a)by works (b) when he offered his son Isaac” **
He does not “only cite Gen 15” . In fact, he specifically describes Gen 22 as fulfilling the Scripture crediting his belief being credited as righteousness. In short, he equates “believing God” and “offering Isaac on the altar” both resulting in justification, he does not disassociate them as you attempt to.
I’ll repeat: either you believe that Scripture means something other than what is says - Abraham was justified BY WORKS WHEN he offered Isaac - or you have no ground to stand on.
Notice how Sandusky isnt backing you up on this ludicrous claim of yours? It is because the only hope is to claim that the justification in James means something different than the justification in Genesis. That argument, while untenable ultimately, at least offers the protagonist an opportunity to score some points. Your argument that “it isnt recorded in Scripture” is ridiculous - it is recorded word for word in James. Here it is again:
"Wasn’t Abraham justified by works when he offered Isaac upon the altar? Yes, he was. And the Scripture “his belief was reckoned as righteousness” was fulfilled: not only in Gen 15, but also in Gen 22. The problem for you is dealing with the reality that he as justified more than once. You’ve drawn that line in the sand and are attempting to cram James into it, and it won’t fit - just like it didnt fit for Luther. I think you are both stubbornly mistaken.
But the bottom line remains, James quotes Gen. 15:6 ONLY.
James only “quotes” Gen 15:6? When, exactly, did “quoting” become your new criteria? Does it matter that James simply paraphrased Gen 22? It doesnt matter at all. James clearly discusses Gen 22 when he uses the term “offered Isaac upon the altar” - there is no escaping that fact - at least not while Im around to point it out. You are simply attempting to change the useless “recorded in Scripture” rule you introduced in the first place into “quoted” from the OT. I repeat: its ridiculous.
He can cite no other occasion where God justified Abraham - and that based on his belief in Him alone.
Of course he “cites” an occasion - Abraham offering Isaac - he simply doesnt “quote” Gen 22 in doing so. Perhaps you would like to tell us WHY “Wasn’t Abraham justified by works when he offered Isaac on the altar?” doesnt meet your criteria?
Is it because he is using rhetoric and not making a statement?
Is it because he doesn’t “quote” Gen 22?
Is this not Scripture?
Does it not say that Abraham was justified by works?
Does it not say that Abraham was justified when he offered Isaac?
Does when not mean “at the time”?
Does it not say that offering Isaac on the altar fulfilled Abraham’s being credited righteousness?
Paul, in fact…
There is nothing Paul says which alters what James says. That is merely the illusion created by your erroneous theology. We all know how much you love to interpret all of Scripture through your understanding of Paul, but it’s irrelevant. There is no need to run to Paul here.
 
You do realize…One can introduce any extra-biblical doctrine one can imagine into the faith through this form of reasoning.
I do realize it. Do you realize that I introduced it based on your illogical “recorded in Scripture” rule? I didnt think so.
 
Church Militant:
Still, just for example.

Quote:
4. Justification and Confession

I said at the beginning that gratuitous justification by faith should transform itself into lived experience for the believer. We Catholics have an enormous advantage in this: the sacraments, and in particular, the sacrament of reconciliation. This offers us an excellent and infallible means to experience anew each time justification by faith. In it is renewed what happened once in baptism, in which, says Paul, the Christian has been “washed, sanctified and justified” (cf. 1 Corinthians 6:11).Notice he places the sacraments on an experiential level only. But “gratuitous justification by faith” he presents as something that happened “once” and the believer was “washed,” “sanctified,” and “justified.”

He presses that at the heart of Paul’s teaching of “gratuitous justification by faith” is the Person and redemptive work of Jesus Christ, through whom this “gratuitious justification” is bestowed:Christ is the heart of the message, even before grace and faith. After having presented, in the preceding two and a half chapters of the Letter to the Romans, all of humanity in its universal state of sin and perdition (“all sinned and are deprived of the glory of God”), the Apostle has the incredible courage to proclaim that this situation has changed radically for all, Jews and Greeks, “in virtue of the redemption in Christ Jesus,” “through the obedience of one man” ([cf.] Romans 3:24; 5:19).

The affirmation that this salvation is received by faith, and not for works, is present in the text and it was perhaps the most urgent to clarify in the time of Luther.I think Fr. Cantalamessa understood both Paul and Luther. He certainly understood what Paul meant when he wrote about “forgetting the past” in respect to works and salvation in Phil. 3.:“Forgetting the past.” What “past”? That of the Pharisee, of what he had said before? No, the past of the apostle, in the Church!

The Apostle warned confusedly of the mortal danger of putting between himself and Christ “his own righteousness” derived from works – this time the works done by Christ – and he reacted vigorously. “I do not believe,” he said, “that I have reached perfection.” St. Francis of Assisi, in a similar situation, cut short any temptation of self-complacency, saying: “We begin, brothers, to serve the Lord, because until now we have done little or nothing.”[8]

This is the most necessary conversion for those that have followed Christ and have lived serving him in the Church. A conversion altogether special, which does not consist in abandoning evil, but rather, in a certain sense, in abandoning the good! That is, by detaching oneself from all that you have done, repeating to yourself, according to the suggestion of Christ: “We are useless servants; we have done only our duty” (Luke 17:10). And not even, perhaps, the good we should do!He brings his point about “gratuitous justification by faith” home with this bit of folklore:A beautiful Christmas story makes us want to arrive to the Nativity, with a heart that is poor and empty of everything. Among the shepherds who presented themselves on Christmas night to adore the Child, there was one so poor that he didn’t have anything to offer and he was very much ashamed. Upon arriving to the cave, the shepherds fought among themselves to offer their gifts. Mary didn’t know how to receive all of them, for she had the Child in her arms. So, seeing the poor shepherd with his hands free, she gave him Jesus to hold. Having empty hands was his fortune, and on another level, it will also be our fortune.IOW, in approaching Christ you bring nothing but your faith in Him, and upon that faith alone (empty hands) you receive, freely, ALL of Christ: All of who He is and what He accomplished through His redemptive work.

I really think the Fr. gets it.
 
Scriptural proof, or just your opinion?

Scriptural proof, or just your opinion?

Scriptural proof, or just your opinion?
When the Bible uses the phrase “in Christ” - or variants like in Him, in the Son, or in Me - in reference to a person, it is always used in a soteriological sense. To say a person is “in Christ” is to say that person has genuine faith and has been justified. No false professor can ever be in Christ because no false professor has genuine faith.

God Bless,
Michael
 
God does not throw away and burn His own children. Especially those for whom Christ suffered and died, purchased with His own blood, and through Whom they’re adopted as sons. .
MD nailed one to outfield fence. 👍 and slides safely into 3rd base.
 
One does not bear fruit in this life simply because he is “in Christ.” He must volitionally and consciously depend upon Christ in his service as the condition of fruitfulness. As Paul said, “I can do all things through Him who strengthens me” (Phil. 4:13).

The believer’s new and eternal position in the resurrected Christ was accomplished by God Himself upon belief in Him. It has nothing to do with fruit bearing.

.
Top quote — Yes, also Christ tells us ‘we can do nothing [of eternal value], apart from him’

Bottom quote — initially, I’d agree strongly … since we have no works of value at our initial conversion. But, once we take on Christ’s nature, and put down our roots into His … Christ expects/mandates that we allow him to inspire/empower us to good works[fruits] befitting our ‘high calling in Christ’.
 
If we FULLY claim to obey the 10 Commandments … what does that make us ?

Righteous, holy, good, just, faithful, acceptable to God, qualified to enjoy eternity, liars … or something else ?

Clearly it doesn’t make us good in God’s eyes. It appears the rich young ruler [Mark 10:17-22] did an admirable job of keeping the laws … yet Christ told him that God alone is Good.

For us to think we can ever be good enough to please God with our lawkeeping is hopeless. Christ told him he lacked only ONE essential thing. We must give up all human bonds to this world … and bond to Christ in faithful discipleship.

Only when we are bonded to the Goodness of Christ … are we viewed as Good by God the Father, and acceptible as holy & fit for his Kingdom.

Keeping the Commandments will never get us to eternal life. Keeping Christ and being OBEDIENT to his ‘Goodness’ will enable us to overcome and see the Kingdom.
 
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