Sam_777,
In that link, I understand that the cup means the painkiller (wine mingled with myrrh), and JESUS did not want to drink it because it would delay His suffering for the sins of the world, BUT He fulfilled THE MOST HIGH will by tasting it as I understand from the following Bible quotes:
catecheticsonline.com/CatenaAurea.php
Matt: 27: 34. They gave him vinegar to drink mingled with gall: and when he had tasted thereof, he would not drink.
(Early Church Fathers)
AUG. And they gave him to drink wine mingled with gall. Mark says, mingled with myrrh. Matthew put gall to express bitterness, but wine mingled with myrrh is very bitter; though indeed it might be, that gall together with myrrh would make the most bitter.
JEROME; The bitter vine makes bitter wine; this they gave the Lord Jesus to drink, that that might be fulfilled which was written, They gave me also gall for my meat. And God addresses Jerusalem, I had planted there a true vine, how are you turned into the bitterness of a strange vine?
**
AUG. And when he had tasted thereof, be would not drink. **That Mark says, But he received it not, we understand to mean that He would not receive it to drink thereof. For that He tasted it Matthew bears witness; so that Matthew’s, He could not drink thereof, means exactly the same as Mark’s, He received it not; only Mark does not mention His tasting it.
That He tasted but would not drink of it, signifies that He tasted the bitterness of death for us, but rose again the third day.
HILARY; Or, He therefore refused the wine mingled with gall, because the bitterness of sin is not mingled with the incorruption of eternal glory.
webpages.marshall.edu/~trimbol3/4thcup4.htm
Verse 28, “After this” - at the very end of his cruel sufferings - “Jesus, knowing that all was now finished said, in order to fulfill the scriptures, ‘I thirst.’” Now, he’s been on the cross for hours. Is this the first moment of thirst. No, he’d been wracked with pain and dying of thirst for hours. But he says, in order to fulfill the scripture, “I thirst.” Why? To fulfill the scripture.
"A bowl of sour wine stood there. They put a sponge full of the sour wine on a hyssop branch - the same kind of branch the Israelites had to use to sprinkle the lamb’s blood on the doorpost, coincidentally enough - and held it to his mouth.
Before when they offered him wine, what did he do? He refused it: “I will not taste of the fruit of the vine I am coming into the kingdom.” He skipped the fourth cup and then he went to pray, ‘Remove this cup, not as I will , but as thou wilt,’ And now he has gone and fulfilled that will to the uttermost, in perfect suffering obedience to the Father, in an act of unspeakable love.
"They put a sponge full of the sour wine on hyssop and held it to his mouth. When Jesus had received the sour wine he said the words that are spoken of in the fourth cup consummation, “It is finished.”
He had skipped the 4th cup at the Last Suppper, The Passover…He on the cross now drank the 4th cup…What is this cup Matt 26:39, “let his cup part from me”…Some scholars suggest this harkens back to Isaiah and Jeremiah to speak about the cup of wrath that the Messiah, God’s suffering servent must drink.
He didn’t fullfill the the Fathers Will by tasting it…He fullfilled it when he drank it on the cross…At least that is how I understand it…I am NO bible scholar, just a very simple person. I am not quite sure if I understand what you are looking for, but since I had answered this post, I took another jab at it…Teresa…
If this is way off would somebody please educate me; )