The Cup.

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What was that cup in (Matthew 26:39) that Jesus was referring to?
Was it the suffering prior to the crucifixion?
Was it the crucifixion itself? if so what it GOD had granted that request to Jesus, will we be having no Christianity today?

I have searched that on the Internet, but I got no compelling answers!
 
What was that cup in (Matthew 26:39) that Jesus was referring to?
Was it the suffering prior to the crucifixion?
Was it the crucifixion itself? if so what it GOD had granted that request to Jesus, will we be having no Christianity today?

I have searched that on the Internet, but I got no compelling answers!
Jesus was referring to the practice of a king drinking from a roayal cup when making a royal decree. The king could order condemnation and wrath, or kindness and compassion, and then would drink from a cup to mark the decree…

Jesus was also referencing the writings of the prophets…

*Rouse yourself, rouse yourself,
stand up, O Jerusalem,
you who have drunk at the hand of the LORD
the cup of his wrath,

who have drunk to the dregs
the bowl of staggering.
(Isaiah 51:17)

Thus says your Lord, the LORD,
your God who pleads the cause of his people:
"Behold, I have taken from your hand the cup of staggering
;
the bowl of my wrath
you shall drink no more;
(Isaiah 51:22)

Thus the LORD, the God of Israel, said to me: "Take from my hand this cup of the wine of wrath, and make all the nations to whom I send you drink it. (Jeremiah 25:12)*

Jews familiar with living under monarchies and familiar with the writings of the prophets wouild have clearly understood what Jesus said. There are many Biblical references to the “Cup of wrath” and the “Cup of consolation”.

-Tim-
 
Jesus was referring to the practice of a king drinking from a roayal cup when making a royal decree. The king could order condemnation and wrath, or kindness and compassion, and then would drink from a cup to mark the decree…
-Tim-
Thanks Tim, but what could have happened if GOD had granted that request to Jesus?
 
🙂 Come on fellow members, you have public libraries in the west, try your best…
 
🙂 Come on fellow members, you have public libraries in the west, try your best…
I have frequented many of them, and have never found anything that explains as well as Scott Hahn in that link posted.

This question is not really a matter of public information, but a peculiarity that we have received from our Jewish heritage. If one does not understand Jewish salvation history, it is impossible to get the concept of the fourth cup.
 
I have frequented many of them, and have never found anything that explains as well as Scott Hahn in that link posted.

This question is not really a matter of public information, but a peculiarity that we have received from our Jewish heritage. If one does not understand Jewish salvation history, it is impossible to get the concept of the fourth cup.
👍 Correct. What else is there to say?
 
🙂 Come on fellow members, you have public libraries in the west, try your best…
I don’t know if this is what you are looking for…: webpages.marshall.edu/~trimbol3/4thcup4.htm (this page comes up in red for some reason)
If you start at the 7th paragraph it speaks of the 4th cup. I would read all of it though; ) This is by Scott Hahn.

catecheticsonline.com/CatenaAurea-Matthew26.php
scroll on down to the verse you want and see what the Early Church Fathers had to say.

Hope this helps Sam…

Teresa
 
I don’t know if this is what you are looking for…: webpages.marshall.edu/~trimbol3/4thcup4.htm
🙂 Thank you very much Teresa,

In that link, I understand that the cup means the painkiller (wine mingled with myrrh), and JESUS did not want to drink it because it would delay His suffering for the sins of the world, BUT He fulfilled THE MOST HIGH will by tasting it as I understand from the following Bible quotes:

(Matthew 27:34)KJV:
“They gave him vinegar to drink mingled with gall: and when he had tasted thereof, he would not drink.”

(Mark 15:23)KJV:
“And they gave him to drink wine mingled with myrrh: but he received it not.”

(John 19:29-30)KJV:
“Now there was set a vessel full of vinegar: and they filled a spunge with vinegar, and put it upon hyssop, and put it to his mouth. When Jesus therefore had received the vinegar, he said, It is finished: and he bowed his head, and gave up the ghost.”

Was my understanding right :confused:
 
Sam_777,

In that link, I understand that the cup means the painkiller (wine mingled with myrrh), and JESUS did not want to drink it because it would delay His suffering for the sins of the world, BUT He fulfilled THE MOST HIGH will by tasting it as I understand from the following Bible quotes:

catecheticsonline.com/CatenaAurea.php
Matt: 27: 34. They gave him vinegar to drink mingled with gall: and when he had tasted thereof, he would not drink.

(Early Church Fathers)
AUG. And they gave him to drink wine mingled with gall. Mark says, mingled with myrrh. Matthew put gall to express bitterness, but wine mingled with myrrh is very bitter; though indeed it might be, that gall together with myrrh would make the most bitter.

JEROME; The bitter vine makes bitter wine; this they gave the Lord Jesus to drink, that that might be fulfilled which was written, They gave me also gall for my meat. And God addresses Jerusalem, I had planted there a true vine, how are you turned into the bitterness of a strange vine?
**
AUG. And when he had tasted thereof, be would not drink. **That Mark says, But he received it not, we understand to mean that He would not receive it to drink thereof. For that He tasted it Matthew bears witness; so that Matthew’s, He could not drink thereof, means exactly the same as Mark’s, He received it not; only Mark does not mention His tasting it.

That He tasted but would not drink of it, signifies that He tasted the bitterness of death for us, but rose again the third day.

HILARY; Or, He therefore refused the wine mingled with gall, because the bitterness of sin is not mingled with the incorruption of eternal glory.

webpages.marshall.edu/~trimbol3/4thcup4.htm

Verse 28, “After this” - at the very end of his cruel sufferings - “Jesus, knowing that all was now finished said, in order to fulfill the scriptures, ‘I thirst.’” Now, he’s been on the cross for hours. Is this the first moment of thirst. No, he’d been wracked with pain and dying of thirst for hours. But he says, in order to fulfill the scripture, “I thirst.” Why? To fulfill the scripture.

"A bowl of sour wine stood there. They put a sponge full of the sour wine on a hyssop branch - the same kind of branch the Israelites had to use to sprinkle the lamb’s blood on the doorpost, coincidentally enough - and held it to his mouth. Before when they offered him wine, what did he do? He refused it: “I will not taste of the fruit of the vine I am coming into the kingdom.” He skipped the fourth cup and then he went to pray, ‘Remove this cup, not as I will , but as thou wilt,’ And now he has gone and fulfilled that will to the uttermost, in perfect suffering obedience to the Father, in an act of unspeakable love.

"They put a sponge full of the sour wine on hyssop and held it to his mouth. When Jesus had received the sour wine he said the words that are spoken of in the fourth cup consummation, “It is finished.”

He had skipped the 4th cup at the Last Suppper, The Passover…He on the cross now drank the 4th cup…What is this cup Matt 26:39, “let his cup part from me”…Some scholars suggest this harkens back to Isaiah and Jeremiah to speak about the cup of wrath that the Messiah, God’s suffering servent must drink.

He didn’t fullfill the the Fathers Will by tasting it…He fullfilled it when he drank it on the cross…At least that is how I understand it…I am NO bible scholar, just a very simple person. I am not quite sure if I understand what you are looking for, but since I had answered this post, I took another jab at it…Teresa…

If this is way off would somebody please educate me; )
 
He had skipped the 4th cup at the Last Suppper, The Passover…He on the cross now drank the 4th cup…What is this cup Matt 26:39, “let his cup part from me”…
Thanks Teresa, you mean that the cup which JESUS prayed for was the cup at the Last Supper! which JESUS did not want to drink with His disciples?
 
Mark 10: 35 And James and John, the sons of Zebedee, came up to him and said to him, “Teacher, we want you to do for us whatever we ask of you.” 36 And he said to them, “What do you want me to do for you?” 37 And they said to him, “Grant us to sit, one at your right hand and one at your left, in your glory.”
38 Jesus said to them, “You do not know what you are asking. Are you able to drink the cup that I drink, or to be baptized with the baptism with which I am baptized?”
39 And they said to him, “We are able.”
And Jesus said to them, “The cup that I drink you will drink, and with the baptism with which I am baptized, you will be baptized, 40 but to sit at my right hand or at my left is not mine to grant, but it is for those for whom it has been prepared.”
The “cup” and “baptism” in this situation are persecution/martyrdom that Jesus would endure and the Apostles would follow after and model.
 
Mark 10: 35 And James and John, the sons of Zebedee, came up to him and said to him, “Teacher, we want you to do for us whatever we ask of you.” 36 And he said to them, “What do you want me to do for you?” 37 And they said to him, “Grant us to sit, one at your right hand and one at your left, in your glory.”
38 Jesus said to them, “You do not know what you are asking. Are you able to drink the cup that I drink, or to be baptized with the baptism with which I am baptized?”
39 And they said to him, “We are able.”
And Jesus said to them, “The cup that I drink you will drink, and with the baptism with which I am baptized, you will be baptized, 40 but to sit at my right hand or at my left is not mine to grant, but it is for those for whom it has been prepared.”
The “cup” and “baptism” in this situation are persecution/martyrdom that Jesus would endure and the Apostles would follow after and model.
Thank you Catholic Dude for your comment for that mysteries issue for me, however, shall I understand from your comment that if GOD had granted that request to Jesus, then Christianity would not have been established?
 
Thank you Catholic Dude for your comment for that mysteries issue for me, however, shall I understand from your comment that if GOD had granted that request to Jesus, then Christianity would not have been established?
I would guess it would mean another method than the Cross ‘could’ be used, but the Cross manifested God’s love for us better than any other option:
I answer that, Among means to an end that one is the more suitable whereby the various concurring means employed are themselves helpful to such end. But in this that man was delivered by Christ’s Passion, many other things besides deliverance from sin concurred for man’s salvation. In the first place, man knows thereby how much God loves him, and is thereby stirred to love Him in return, and herein lies the perfection of human salvation; hence the Apostle says (Romans 5:8): “God commendeth His charity towards us; for when as yet we were sinners . . . Christ died for us.” Secondly, because thereby He set us an example of obedience, humility, constancy, justice, and the other virtues displayed in the Passion, which are requisite for man’s salvation. Hence it is written (1 Peter 2:21): “Christ also suffered for us, leaving you an example that you should follow in His steps.” Thirdly, because Christ by His Passion not only delivered man from sin, but also merited justifying grace for him and the glory of bliss, as shall be shown later (48, 1; 49, 1, 5). Fourthly, because by this man is all the more bound to refrain from sin, according to 1 Corinthians 6:20: “You are bought with a great price: glorify and bear God in your body.” Fifthly, because it redounded to man’s greater dignity, that as man was overcome and deceived by the devil, so also it should be a man that should overthrow the devil; and as man deserved death, so a man by dying should vanquish death. Hence it is written (1 Corinthians 15:57): “Thanks be to God who hath given us the victory through our Lord Jesus Christ.” It was accordingly more fitting that we should be delivered by Christ’s Passion than simply by God’s good-will.
newadvent.org/summa/4046.htm#article4
 
Thank you Catholic Dude for your comment for that mysteries issue for me, however, shall I understand from your comment that if GOD had granted that request to Jesus, then Christianity would not have been established?
If the Father had granted the Son’s request to let the cup pass from Him, Christianity would have certainly looked different. But that wasn’t the point of His prayer to the Father. It was His wish and decision to endure the crucifixion, it was not forced upon Him.

He was teaching us, even in the Agony in the Garden. He was teaching us that when we are suffering, there is nothing wrong with asking for relief from it from God. Even when that suffering is His will, it is still okay to ask that the suffering pass.
 
If the Father had granted the Son’s request to let the cup pass from Him, Christianity would have certainly looked different. But that wasn’t the point of His prayer to the Father. It was His wish and decision to endure the crucifixion, it was not forced upon Him.

He was teaching us, even in the Agony in the Garden. He was teaching us that when we are suffering, there is nothing wrong with asking for relief from it from God. Even when that suffering is His will, it is still okay to ask that the suffering pass.
👍
 
I would guess it would mean another method than the Cross ‘could’ be used,
If the Father had granted the Son’s request to let the cup pass from Him, Christianity would have certainly looked different. But that wasn’t the point of His prayer to the Father. It was His wish and decision to endure the crucifixion, it was not forced upon Him.
So The Cup = The Crucifixion ?
 
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