Perhaps my post reads as though I am only not interested in discussing this with Mardukm. Oops. I meant it to apply to anyone who will answer “that’s not what Rome says”. Please understand this: Any doctrine that places the Theotokos outside of the human nature that she shares with the rest of humanity will not be acceptable to the Orthodox.
We dispute the proposition that the dogma places the Theotokos outside of human nature.
You don’t have to agree with us, of course. You don’t even have to engage us. But you
will know and now
do know that we dispute and contradict such understandings of the dogma as untrue, unpatristic, and non-Traditional.
“Original sin”, “Stain of original sin”, etc. We don’t even have these ideas to begin with … Using terms or offering opinions on subjects that aren’t really well-understood by the communion as a whole, and hence confusing everybody. It’d be better just not to offer those opinions in that case.
Understood. I don’t think anyone here wants you or your church to suddenly adopt exclusively Latin terminology. From our perspective, you believe what we believe anyway, although you express it quite differently. So we’re perfectly happy to leave this alone.
But we won’t just ignore it if,
instead of ignoring it, you start asserting things about the teaching that aren’t true. I do hope that doesn’t offend you, dzheremi.
If it were just a matter of being sanctified in the womb or what have you, that would be one thing
Sanctified from the moment of her conception, yes. That’s the dogmatic core of the Immaculate Conception, stripped of its Latin terminology.
I can’t speak for your church, dzheremi, but the Byzantines’ Divine Liturgy on the Entrance of the Theotokos into the Temple states that when she entered the Temple as an infant, she brought divine grace with her.
As I said, the Immaculate Conception is unworthy of great controversy.
Is Christ’s death on the cross not necessary for her salvation, then, since she is uniquely redeemed at her conception?
Is Christ’s death on the cross not necessary for the salvation of Saint John the Baptist, since he was uniquely redeemed while still in the womb?
This fact would answer the objection I’ve encountered that a few Fathers say that Mary recieved certain Graces later in her life. It also responds to the objection that Mary had no free will because of the IC. Grace, according to Catholic teaching, can only grow when the recipient RESPONDS to Grace. If the Apostolic Constitution explicitly states that Mary grew in holiness, then that means she was responding by free will to the Grace given to her.
Excellent points, Marduk.
I am Eastern Catholic and I do not believe in the Immaculate Conception.
Oh, I’ll bet you do.
When do you believe the Theotokos received sanctifying grace and the indwelling of the Holy Spirit?
Hint: consult the Kontakion for the Entrance of the Theotokos into the Temple.
It really is an unnecessary speculative theory from an Eastern Christian perspective.
Fair enough, Apotheoun. I fully understand why many eastern Christians feel it’s best to simply ignore it, but I think you’ll find that it’s not something you “don’t believe in” if you choose to engage the matter at all.