The Eucharist: Real Presence or symbol?

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It is only a symbol to those “Johnny-come-lately” churches, which have no historical ties to any ancient litugical church. The idea it is only a symbol is a novelty that is the truth of the matter. If it is only a symbol as so many claim,then why didn’t the ECF’s write against the Real Presence, if it is ONLY a symbol? They wrote against countless heresies,but not against the RP? :confused: How odd.
It is my opinion to let God deal with the umbelievers. If it was just a symbol, why did not Jesus just say, drink this wine and eat this bread, do this in my memory. why He would risk loose so many with the Words, my Flesh and my Blood?
 
Exactly what I am saying. Why the emphasize put on the Eucharist if it was just a symbol? obviously some umbeliever was around and the Eucharist had to be defended. that is why it has to be defended today. The Eucharist has been battered from the beginning. The Word Eucharist was even forbiden one time. But we know it has survived to this day. Thanks be to God. No man against God will succeed. Power, honor, and Wisdom to our God who is the same yesterday, today, and forever. Amen
Equally important,I always ask those who say it is only a symbol,why no qualms or gripes about:

God being the Creator, incarnated as man,performed countless miracles and signs, died, and resurrected and ascended to Heaven, BUT He cannot give us His FULL body,blood and divinity in bread and wine? God is NOT capable of such a feat? How more carnal can one get?
 
I agree that He is wonderful in His love. And I believe He is intimate with us in our spirits and hearts.

And I agree with your interpretation of participating in His body, His sacrifice. It’s crossing the line to literal body from symbolic body. First of all, it’s not a huge distinction, I don’t think.

Secondly, all doctrinal and scriptural disagreements aside for moment, I just recoil from the ‘intimacy’ experienced in crushing our Lord’s body between my teeth and then dropping Him into a pit of hydrochloric acid. Sorry for being so vivid, it’s just that I’d rather allow the bread and wine to SYMBOLIZE His sacrifice, His body and blood.

To ‘symbolize’ is to represent something that is not physically present (as determined by the senses).
To be present in a transubstantial manner is to represent something that is not physically present (as determined by the senses).

Is this really a point of division? Read the writings of Catholic theologian Edwards Schillebeeckx, active in Vatican II.

books.google.com/books?id=3eF6fCIWHGoC&printsec=frontcover&dq=Edward+Schillebeeckx+and+the+eucharist&source=bl&ots=iNLSy_ckmS&sig=lF841EmcY3pTTXhSU1lkzOgityM&hl=en&ei=G0KCTeCsIOmT0QH3_vnCCA&sa=X&oi=book_result&ct=result&resnum=2&ved=0CB4Q6AEwAQ#v=onepage&q=transubstantiation&f=false

Page 53

He addresses the difference between faith in the real presence, and the literal, change in substance, which he thinks was a polemical move against Luther by the Council of Trent.

If only the Church could change it’s mind, but alas, we may have solidified division.
David, I appreciate your thoughts and honesty. I would like to explain in a way that may be of help to you in seeing the Catholic thought. This may take several responses.

“literal” and “symbolic” you mentioned is not a huge distinction. But if I gave someone symbolic dollars for real dollars, whould it make a difference to them? Or if I said to someone, I promised to give you … only it will be symbolic … and not real.

Now I would not have any problem if Jesus said that whenever you receive this bread it is symbolic of me if he really wanted it that way. I would embrace it with all my love. But the 4 gospels, the Acts, and Paul’s letters are full of what He really meant. If we were to extract them all and look at them all together, to me it is just so powerful in the way the real presence is expressed. Maybe one or the other passage could be questioned, but all of them together is just overwhelming to me.

I can appreciate your feelings tho. Because I know from personal expierence that is very difficult for me to change intellectual dirrections when I have been leaning most of my life in one direction. I is really hard to see things any other way. We have been taught and
and conditioned to believe, and to feel, in a given way. So I can appreciate anyone’s difficulty in this respect. One thing I might suggest, try to look objectively at all the passages for what they are saying, and as I said, this is hard.​

'…love everyone, especially the brethern." Saul the murderer, Paul the convert.
 
Jesus taught His Apostles but the ears and eyes of those outside could not hear or understand. Jesus Himself said. I am not surprised that those outside the Church cannot hear or understand what Jesus taught. They reapeat the Words but they cannot know what the Word means.
Bishop Ignatius of Antioch was a student of John the Apostle . John the Apostle was one of Jesus twelve Apostles and he was inside . So wouldn’t it make sense that John taught Ignatius without error ? So If Ignatius is mentioning the Catholic church by name and saying the the Eucharist is the true body and blood of Christ it would make sense that he learned it from John who learned from Jesus who is without error .
 
Hi radical
I thought I’d try to continue this discussion in this thread as it was off topic in the other.
sorry I have taken so long to respond
Do you accept that Only a “priest” can hope to offer a worthy sacrifice?
no…take Cane and Abel as examples. I wouldn’t call them priests
Only a priest can do any of this. Forget about general /ministerial for the moment. And don’t get me wrong the Eucharist is far more deep than an offering of bread and wine(ie as if it was independent of us) it is humbly “us” offered through the only pure sacrifice made by the true High priest. *That is why I think that we are called priests and why bread and wine is used and why Jesus is refered to as the firstfruits and the Passover…
I think 1 Peter calls us (all) priests b/c 1) we all offer spiritual sacrifices; and 2) we all are set apart to become a spiritual temple and to serve God…I don’t see anything that requires or establishes a priesthood beyond that.
Re the need for a bishop/clergy to preside as a ministerial priest under the high preist(in vein of aarons sons did I believe) I see acts 6:1-6 where the apostles ordain for purpose of daily ministration.
I don’t see any connection here. The appointment in Acts 6 was for the purpose of administration (“waiting on tables”)…I see nothing in the vein of Aaron
…the general priesthood offer a sacrifice of a contrite broken heart of repentance at any time, and prayer and worship and try to do His will etc…
this is a fair comment and is a thing seen by the ECFs
…in terms of appointing another bishop, Paul gives Titus the ok not the general congregation, independent of ordained clergy.
It does say Paul gave Titus that task in that instance. It doesn’t say Paul didn’t give that task to the general congregation in any other instance. It doesn’t say if Titus then passed that duty (the appointment of elders to a body of elders) to the body of elders or to the congregation. It does seem that the approval of the local congregation was required for the appointment of its leadership.
I don’t believe u can extract a congregation ordaining authority from didache when u have the apostles ordaining stepehn/phillip. And then have paul/Titus(ie Paul authorizing Titus to ordain as he did him)
why not?..it seems to be the plain meaning of the text.
Where is the quality control in that
with the congregation (aka the body of Christ) …it seems to me that first Clement tacitly recognizes the congregation’s authority WRT quality control. Clement doesn’t state that Corinth had no authority to dismiss its leaders…the complaint is that rightoues leaders were dismissed
I’m sure Simon mangus would of loved that set up. I recall he offered to pay for the power to lay hands.
and I recall that the office of the Pope has been bought and sold…where was the quality control then…it seems that any set-up involving men will possess a level of corruption
Why, when he could of just found a simple group of Christians to appoint him. *When the apostles appointed stepehen and phillip etc it was for a ministerial role as the apostles were getting to busy is my understanding.
he may have done exactly that (as a plan B)
*I note polycarp also writes “…be obedient to clergy and deacons as we should be to God and Christ…”, which seems to reflect that baggage u have concerns about with the modern use of “bishop”
first Polycarp establishes that the deacons must be blameless, then he calls for obedience to them. Obedience to the righteous leader (who is more of a servant than a king) is not the baggage I envision
…once the clear types of firstfruits and Passover are recognized in the Eucharist
please explain this again, in more detail, as I just don’t see that the loose application of types leads to the need for a priestly role.

WRT to your reference to Augustine, I agree that he sees more in the Eucharist than the congregation offering itself, but I haven’t seen any good indication of a real bodily presence being involved. Let me ask you (and the others of your view) this. Let us suppose that Augustine did hold to a real somatic presence like you insist (say like the Antiochene school of that time and as described by Ambrose). Why is it then that:

a) in Sermon 272, when Augustine asks “how can the bread be his body”, Augustine makes no mention of anything that approaches a real somatic presence? (please keep in mind that this is a sermon in which he is instructing a congregation)

b) in OCD when he is telling how we (his audience, himself and us today) should understand Christ’s command to eat his flesh, Augustine makes no mention anything that approaches a real somatic presence? He merely stated that we are to dismiss the cannibalistic interpretation and opt for the figurative interpretation. Why didn’t he mention that third option, the real somatic presence interpretation? Would you not indicate the Eucharist (and its real somatic presence) as the way in which his flesh is eaten if you were to explain how that command is to be obeyed?

c) in his works on John and in his sermons on the Eucharist, Augustine never described a change in the nature of the elements from bread/wine to flesh/blood as Ambrose had earlier done?
 
c) in his works on John and in his sermons on the Eucharist, Augustine never described a change in the nature of the elements from bread/wine to flesh/blood as Ambrose had earlier done?
And that alone proves Augustine denied the real presence? Pure conjecture!
 
David,

The second point that you mentioned was that is was difficult for you to think about eating the real body of Christ because it was distasteful, being corrupted by bodily fluids.
That is a good observation because other Catholics have expressed that same idea before they understood how it is not unbeautiful but actually very beautiful.

Our Heavenly Father made all things good. And when he made man He said that man was made to his image and likeness. This I would assume means the totallity of man, both spiritual and materially,and all parts thereof. All of these indivdual parts are made a certain way for the good of the whole. And all of the functions of these parts would also be good. So the function of the stomach is good in the eye of God ,in fact I would say it was beautiful because it in some way reflects the Maker who is all Good. So tho we may see things differently, isn’t it better to see all things as He sees them? This holds not only for this situation, but all situations where, humanly speaking, we find them unbeautiful.

But beside the above, I find it absolutely stunning that only our Sweet Jesus could think of a most intimate and dear way to be one with us, that close.

In addition, I believe you have some understanding of “accidents” and “substance”. Now substance is the body of Christ. Accidents are of the bread before it was changed. Accidents are the color, texture, feel, and the like, of the bread, or namely what you see and feel. And this is where the mystery enters. How is all of this possible? Thru Christ’s command “do this”. I bring this up so that you may understand that He is not touched by our body, only the accidents. But nevertheless, He is present body,blood,soul,divinity in the Eucharist.

Tomorrow, I’ll get back with you again.​

“…love everyone,especially the brethern.” Saul the murderer, Paul the convert.
 
If the Eucharist was just a symbol then, there would be no need to defend it or even talk about it. how about the Catholics being called of canibals by the pagans. if it was just a symbol that they believed then, why is the argument about it anyway.
hey Wisdomseeker, thanks for your post. Someone made this argument on the last thread that I was on …and I never got around to addressing it. If I follow your argument it is:

There must have been more to eating the bread than eating a mere symbol of the body of Christ, otherwise the pagans wouldn’t have accused the Christians of cannibalism. The eating of a real bodily presence must have been involved.

Here is a quote from Tertullian that describes the pagan criticism of Christian worship:

Monsters of wickedness, we are accused of observing a holy rite in which we kill a little child and then eat it; in which, after the feast, we practise incest, the dogs our pimps, forsooth, overturning the lights and getting us the shamelessness of darkness for our impious lusts. Apology 7.1

please note that the Christians are accused of more than just cannibalism. Now applying your argument to one of the other accusations, namely incest we get:

There must have been more to the love between a Christian brother and a Christian sister than mere spiritual love, otherwise the pagans wouldn’t have accused the Christians of incest. A real sexual interaction between siblings must have been involved.

I have no idea what would lead to the accusation of infantcide, but as per your argument, it would have to be that some child is actually killed in some substantive manner, otherwise the pagans would have never made the claim…and as for dog pimps. What is with that??? So what horrid crimes are you suggesting that the early Christians were up to?
 
Hey DaveY…🙂
I agree with this. My point was that anyone can argue that, because someone disagrees they are not a part of the true church.
Dave, are you suggesting that any person who starts a church can argue that God maintains doctrinal truth in the church started by said person, in spite of the weeds mixed in with the wheat, in said church? If so, I won’t bother you anymore. Scripturally and logically speaking, only the church founded by Jesus, on Pentecost, circa AD 33, in Jerusalem, cam rightfully make that claim, for it is Jesus’ church (Jesus said: I will build my church…) - that is being guided into all truth until the end of time, as opposed to any one church founded by a mere man, such as myself, Luther, Zwingli, Calvin or Joseph Smith etc - at a later date than Pentecost. The problem seems to be, I think: you do not believe the CC is the church founded by Jesus, on Pentecost - correct? Well, if you are right, (and we know that Jesus was not the founder of any of the protestant churches) - then I guess the one assembly founded by Jesus did not survive the test of time, leaving the world with all man-made churches - correct? We can’t rule out the CC without ruling out every PC, for all PC’s stem from the CC. You seem like a logical person; does that seem logical to you?
I believe that God inspired His disciples and apostles to record His doctrinal truth in Scripture. That is the standard by which we measure everything, including tradition from that point on, in my view.
Truth is found in sacred scripture, no doubt about that, and every Christian belonging to the CC agrees with you, however, I believe scripture calls Jesus’ church the pillar and foundation of truth. I often wondered why that was so long ago, that was until I read John 16:13, John 14:16, Matthew 16, Acts 1 and Matthew 28:20. The standard by which all sola scriptural proponents measure everything has been sacred scripture, since the reformation; what kind of fruits has that standard cultivated? If someone does not agree with the teachings of their church, they can just start their own church, since the bible, not their church, is the standard by which all is measured, and teach, basing their teachings on their judgment of sacred scripture. Does not sound to scriptural to me. Sounds like an added doctrine to me.
The problem is that I hear a lot of equivocation when it comes to the word church. Church can mean group of believers in Jesus, those confessing His name in the early days, then a couple of hundred years later it is ONLY those who accept this pope or that pope (eastern or western), a few hundred after that it is ONLY those who accept justification by penance and baptism…then papal infallibility…and so forth.
A church is the body of believers united and one, as per the Greek Lexicon; seems pretty straightforward. Equivocation is unavoidable in the protestant sphere, for no one man or church has the authority that the CC had in the 4th century, which was when the bible was codified.

I used to think like you until I immersed myself in church history, not that I am suggesting that I am right and you are wrong; heck, I could be wrong but this is the path I have chosen. Penance and baptism have been around since the 1st century. Infallibility does not mean that the bishop of Rome (successor of Peter) - is infallible, just as Peter was not infallible. I didn’t believe the CC taught that, even as a non-Catholic. Either the CC teaches inerrantly or errantly, doctrinally speaking - period. I know of no protestant church leadership that claims to teach errantly , aka, infallibly. The CC added nothing, just as they did not add the Trinitarian doctrine, which was not embraced by the apostles, as it was defined by the CC in the 4th century. The CC, when faced with heretical movements, simply steps up and clarifies; that’s all, and thank God, and they do this inerrantly, because Jesus is forever guiding His church into all truth, in spite of every fallible person in His church! After my exhaustive look into the Early church fathers (leaders closest to the apostolic age) - I realized that doctrines such as confession and baptism and the true presence in the Eucharist and penance and Mary’s sinlessness were all believed, and clarified, over time, just as the God-Head was clarified. My only obstacle was the assumption of Mary, which, after much prayer, it occurred to me that Mary’s assumption was the logical result of her sinlessness.
No one was anathematized for these things in the early church. They were judged by their fruit.
Plenty of people were anathematized in the early church!!! :confused: If a church is judged solely on their fruit, then doctrinal truth really doesn’t matter, and anathematizing someone doesn’t either. If that is how you feel, Godspeed friend…
Also, since Paul did a majority of the Gentile church-planting after Christ and Peter focused on the Jews, were Paul’s churches ‘true’ churches? Was Paul under Peter, with passages such as those found in Galatians 2:11?
Of course. Peter and Paul belonged to the same church. Ignatius, as one example was a pupil of Peter and John and he said, where Jesus Christ is there is the CC, but it seems that you believe that Peter, John and Paul did not belong to the CC. Well, then please help me find the church, in the world today, that Peter and Paul did belong to, and let’s leave the CC and all of the PC’s out of the discussion for the time being?

To which church in the world today, do you feel drawn, and why brother?
 
hey Wisdomseeker, thanks for your post. Someone made this argument on the last thread that I was on …and I never got around to addressing it. If I follow your argument it is:

There must have been more to eating the bread than eating a mere symbol of the body of Christ, otherwise the pagans wouldn’t have accused the Christians of cannibalism. The eating of a real bodily presence must have been involved.

Here is a quote from Tertullian that describes the pagan criticism of Christian worship:

Monsters of wickedness, we are accused of observing a holy rite in which we kill a little child and then eat it; in which, after the feast, we practise incest, the dogs our pimps, forsooth, overturning the lights and getting us the shamelessness of darkness for our impious lusts. Apology 7.1

please note that the Christians are accused of more than just cannibalism. Now applying your argument to one of the other accusations, namely incest we get:

There must have been more to the love between a Christian brother and a Christian sister than mere spiritual love, otherwise the pagans wouldn’t have accused the Christians of incest. A real sexual interaction between siblings must have been involved.

I have no idea what would lead to the accusation of infantcide, but as per your argument, it would have to be that some child is actually killed in some substantive manner, otherwise the pagans would have never made the claim…and as for dog pimps. What is with that??? So what horrid crimes are you suggesting that the early Christians were up to?
NONE.
This is simply *e
vidence* that the Early Christians truly believed in the Real Presence - a fact that the pagans found extremely difficult to grasp. Kind of like the way you - and millions of other Protestants find it difficult to grasp . . .**
 
NONE.
**This is simply e**vidence that the Early Christians truly believed in the Real Presence - a fact that the pagans found extremely difficult to grasp. Kind of like the way you - and millions of other Protestants find it difficult to grasp . . .
right, and that accusation of incest was evidence of the very same quality that the Early Christians truly enjoyed incestuous orgies - a “fact” that the pagans found extremely difficult to grasp :rolleyes:
 
This one has always seemed obvious to me, but it seems our separated brethren obfuscate, evade, or flat-out say we Catholics just don’t understand what Jesus was saying. So let’s look at the evidence.

Seems like if those that understood Jesus to be saying eat my flesh and didn’t like it walked away, why didn’t He say wait guys come back I am using a metaphor. Every time he is questioned he reiterates the same point. Eat My flesh. Drink My blood.

Discuss…
👍

Very good. Let’s have a look at this:

John 6:48
Is Jesus saying He is bread?
Is He saying He is a piece of bread?
No, He is saying He is Life.

John 6:50
Did Jesus say by eating bread one will live forever?
Is He saying you have to eat Him?
No, He is saying that bringing Him, within you, will enable you, to live forever.

John 6:51
Is Jesus saying He is bread dropping from Heaven?
Is He a piece of bread that dropped down?
No, He is saying He is Life, the Life that has come from Heaven.

John 6:52
Is Jesus saying that bread is His flesh; eating the bread is eating His flesh?
Did He mean that eating a piece of bread is eating His actual flesh?
No, He is saying that He is Life and as bread symbolizes life, taking bread in symbolizes taking Him in.

John 6:54
Did Jesus mean that His disciples would have to slaughter Jesus and eat His flesh and drink His blood or else die?
No, He is saying that unless His disciples have Him, they have no life.

John 6:57
Did Jesus mean His disciples would have to cannibalize Him, to abide in Him.
No, He is saying to partake of Jesus is to abide in Him and He to abide in them.

John 6:58
Did Jesus mean His disciples should make a meal of Him?
No, He is saying that Life Eternal is life with Jesus within.

John 6:64
Jesus clarifies the above verses: the words I have spoken are of spirit and life – the flesh profiteth nothing.
Jesus was not speaking of drinking blood or eating bread. He was talking of His Life being available for us [and not by eating Him].

Yes, the disciples thought He was speaking literally. Wouldn’t you, too? Here was God offering Life Eternal to mortals. Not surprising, they only saw the literal. Many of Jesus’ parables were equally lost, on the first-time listeners.

🙂
 
I understand this, the Pope can still give wrong directions, and I’ve heard the distinction before, but I find it difficult to pin down what ‘ex cathedra’ means.

For instance, could Peter speak ‘ex cathedra’ in the first century? How would this be known?

Thanks!
Okay, here is the best way to explain it. There are teaching’s and Church doctrines.

Now the Eucharist, it is a Church doctrine, It was taught as the truth that was revealed to us by the Holy Spirit so it can never change.

It WAS revealed to us by the Holy Spirit,

Now there are still many mysteries in the bible. All has been revealed to us by Christ, by that I mean there will be no new revelation until he comes again in glory, but there is still he has yet to reveal to us.

Now lets go to infant Baptism. Can a baby enter heaven without baptism. If it is revealed in scripture the Pope and Bishops, etc have not found it yet.

Does a person have to be baptised to enter heaven? Yes the bible tells us that. But is a person refused entrance to heaven w/o it, Yes its revealed. But can God with his grace at the time of death or judgement baptise that child to enter heaven??? THe Church says they don’t know but believe it is possible.

So is a Child refused Heaven if it is not baptised in this world. The Church teaching is all is possible with Gods grace and mercy. That is all that has been revealed, and all they can teach at this time.

Now you can ask the 5th Pope if he believes that baby will go to heaven, he can say no.

Now you can ask the 6th Pope he can say yes.

But that is what they think, it is not revealed to them by the Holy Spirit by scripture or Sacred Tradition.

So they cannot teach it either way, Not yet anyway, If it is to be revealed its in the teachings and if God wants it to be revealed it will be revealed at that time. Then the answer will be from the Chair, and will be the truth and will never change.

But there will be either oral teaching’s or written teachings to show us. Do you see what I am saying?
 
And the Pope cannot give wrong directions. If he speaks in the voice of the Holy Spirit it is straight from God. How do we know this cannot fail, Simple.

The Church is of DIVINE INSTITUTION.

Jesus instituted the CHURCH not mere MEN afer his ascension.

Go back to Matt. Jesus asked the Apostles who am I. Peters VOICE rang out, remember? Now here is proof of the Holy Spirit speaking to Peter, and Peter speaking in the name of God.

Jesus said NO MERE MAN REVEALED this to you, but my FATHER in Heaven. There is your proof. Then what did Jesus say YOU ARE PETER, (the ROCK) and upon this PETER aka ROCK I will build my Church and the gates of hades will not prevail.

Now hades is 2 things. Hades is hell, and hades is death. Both meanings are said here. The death of the Apostles will not end the Catholic Church, or the Power of the Holy Spirit, and Hell . (satan) will not overpower the Holy Spirit leading his Church.

Go to the scripture of Luke 10:16 Jesus tells us you cannot separate the Lord from his beloved Body and Bride the CHURCH. The CC can never fail, even though his members can.

Now people say well I believe that the Holy Spirit led the ORIGINAL Apostles, but not anymore. How can this be? What they are really saying then is the Holy Spirit could lead Peter but not the Pope of today? Makes no sense does it.

Especially is this were true then Jesus would have had to lied to us. Did he not say, I will not leave you ORPHANS I will be with you until the end of Age.

Then non-catholics say I can believe what the ORIGINAL Apostles taught but not the Pope! What in the world is the difference. Is the Pope the leader of the CC and did the Pope replace Peter or not? See what I am saying.

It amazes me how people can accept scripture, but then refuse to follow the present leaders of the Church. This I simply cannot understand.

Now I can understand if the Original Apostles were doubted, simply the Holy Spirit never came, but to say I agree that it did come, but then left us??:confused: This is something I cannot ponder in my mind:shrug: You either believe ALL of the truth or NONE, but all can you just choose to believe what suits you. This is what I see.🤷
 
Originally Posted by DavidY View Post
I understand this, the Pope can still give wrong directions, and I’ve heard the distinction before, but I find it difficult to pin down what ‘ex cathedra’ means.
For instance, could Peter speak ‘ex cathedra’ in the first century? How would this be known?

Keys signify authority. Was authority given to Peter when Jesus gave Peter alone the keys to the kingdom of God, and told Peter alone that He would build His church on him, and that the gates of hell would never overcome it? That seems like a good starting point.

As far as excathedra (the chair or throne) - is concerned, there are plenty early citations; here’s one for example from Cyprian, bishop of Carthage, AD 250:

“There is one God and one Christ, and one Church, and one Chair founded on the Rock [Peter] by the voice of the Lord. It is not possible to set up another altar or another priesthood besides that one altar and that one priesthood. Whoever gathers elsewhere, scatters.” (Epistle 39 (43))
 
right, and that accusation of incest was evidence of the very same quality that the Early Christians truly enjoyed incestuous orgies - a “fact” that the pagans found extremely difficult to grasp :rolleyes:
Not at all. Belief in the reality of the Real Presence has outlived the ridiculous accusations of the 1st and 2nd century pagans - rendering your weak point, moot . . .**:rolleyes:
 
Very good. Let’s have a look at this:
John 6:48
Is Jesus saying He is bread?
Is He saying He is a piece of bread?
No, He is saying He is Life.

John 6:50
Did Jesus say by eating bread one will live forever?
Is He saying you have to eat Him?
No, He is saying that bringing Him, within you, will enable you, to live forever.

John 6:51
Is Jesus saying He is bread dropping from Heaven?
Is He a piece of bread that dropped down?
No, He is saying He is Life, the Life that has come from Heaven.
WRONG**.**
He clearly says his FLESH. The Greek word used here is σαρξ (sarx), which means:
1) flesh (the soft substance of the living body, which covers the bones and is permeated with blood) of both man and beasts 2) flesh (as stripped of the skin), i.e. (strictly) the meat of an animal (as food), or (by extension) the body (as opposed to the soul (or spirit), or as the symbol of what is external, or as the means of kindred)
, or (by implication) human nature (with its frailties (physically or morally) and passions), or (specially), a human being …


If Jesus wanted to use a symbolic term for himself, the Greek word that would have been use is σώμα (body). However, the word for FLESH is used here – a piece of MEAT.


Your blunder is that you fail to understand the Greek in which the Gospel of John was written.**
John 6:52
Is Jesus saying that bread is His flesh; eating the bread is eating His flesh?
Did He mean that eating a piece of bread is eating His actual flesh?
No, He is saying that He is Life and as bread symbolizes life, taking bread in symbolizes taking Him in.
**You mean **John 6:53. What does Jesus say here?
"Amen, amen, I say to you, unless you eat (“trogo” much, gnaw, like an animal eats) - the flesh (meat) of the Son of Man and drink his blood, you do not have life within you.”


Curious Seed;7661768[COLOR=black said:

6:54
Did Jesus mean that His disciples would have to slaughter Jesus and eat His flesh and drink His blood or else die?
No, He is saying that unless His disciples have Him, they have no life.
John 6:57
Did Jesus mean His disciples would have to cannibalize Him, to abide in Him.
No, He is saying to partake of Jesus is to abide in Him and He to abide in them.

John 6:58
Did Jesus mean His disciples should make a meal of Him?
No, He is saying that Life Eternal is life with Jesus within.
WRONG again.
Your failure here is that you do not understand is that Jesus was telling them to eat him in a sacramental manner – which he institutes SACRAMENTALLY at the Last Supper.

Curious Seed;[COLOR=black:
[QUOTE]
7661768]
[/QUOTE]
Curious Seed;[COLOR=black:
John 6:64
Jesus clarifies the above verses: the words I have spoken are of spirit and life – the flesh profiteth nothing.
Jesus was not speaking of drinking blood or eating bread. He was talking of His Life being available for us [and not by eating Him].
YOUR flesh profits nothing and neither does mine. HIS flesh profits us EVERYTHING.
It’s not surprising that you would fail to include the TEXT of verses 64 & 65 because they apply directly to
YOU:
**“But there are some of you who do not believe." Jesus knew from the beginning the ones who would not believe and the one who would betray him. **
**And he said, "For this reason I have told you that no one can come to me unless it is granted him by my Father." **

By your resistance, smugness, it is glaringly apparent that the truth of the Real Presence has not been revealed to you from above. Until you can turn from your spiritual pride – it may never be revealed to you . . .
 
Not at all**. Belief in the reality of the Real Presence has outlived the ridiculous accusations of the 1st and 2nd century pagans - …and I guess that you have forgotten that love amongst the brothers and sisters in Christ is still around today…but in its case, pious imagination hasn’t made it into something more than a spiritual thing
…rendering your weak
 
hey Wisdomseeker, thanks for your post. Someone made this argument on the last thread that I was on …and I never got around to addressing it. If I follow your argument it is:

There must have been more to eating the bread than eating a mere symbol of the body of Christ, otherwise the pagans wouldn’t have accused the Christians of cannibalism. The eating of a real bodily presence must have been involved.

Here is a quote from Tertullian that describes the pagan criticism of Christian worship:

Monsters of wickedness, we are accused of observing a holy rite in which we kill a little child and then eat it; in which, after the feast, we practise incest, the dogs our pimps, forsooth, overturning the lights and getting us the shamelessness of darkness for our impious lusts. Apology 7.1

please note that the Christians are accused of more than just cannibalism. Now applying your argument to one of the other accusations, namely incest we get:

There must have been more to the love between a Christian brother and a Christian sister than mere spiritual love, otherwise the pagans wouldn’t have accused the Christians of incest. A real sexual interaction between siblings must have been involved.

I have no idea what would lead to the accusation of infantcide, but as per your argument, it would have to be that some child is actually killed in some substantive manner, otherwise the pagans would have never made the claim…and as for dog pimps. What is with that??? So what horrid crimes are you suggesting that the early Christians were up to?
Pagans accused the Catholics of many things including set firing in rome. I dont know why you continue to seek excuse for your desbelief. the fact is that the Eucharist was being defended by the leaders of the Church and the reason was basically because of the desbelief of many just like today. I never suggest that Catholics were commiting any crimes you are the one implying this here.
 
Radical, would it be a safe bet, (regarding the real presence of Jesus’ Body and Blood in the Eucharist, as taught by the Catholic Church) - to say that no one here at CAF is ever going to change your mind? Not that anyone here is proselytizing of course; just curious?
and I guess that you have forgotten that love amongst the brothers and sisters in Christ is still around today…but in its case, pious imagination hasn’t made it into something more than a spiritual thing

nope…it is exactly the same quality of evidence that you want to rely upon:

accusation of cannibalism => evidence for eating “real flesh”

accusation of incest => (by your reasoning) evidence for “real” sexual activity between Christian brothers and sisters.

…but carry on with relying upon ridiculous accusations to support your claim…we can add that to “denial of senses” as an act of the desparate 😉
 
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