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Nicea325
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Originally Posted by Nicea325
False analogy? Just as in the Old Passover, Israelites were commanded to eat of the sacrificial lamb, so we are commanded by Jesus to consume the flesh of the New Passover lamb of the New Covenant in the New Exodus!
Call it and see it as you wish,does not change the fact what Jesus taught and said.Okay, obviously this just isn’t going to happen. It’s like a broken record.
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Originally Posted by Nicea325
Okay…and? How does that negate the Passover?
Ah no…Jesus said to EAT His Flesh and drink His Blood,not SYMBOLS!I am talking about the nature of Christ’s high priestly sacrifice. It makes sense that bread and wine are consumed, that is what Melchizedek offered.
Wow, just…wow.
Citation for ‘unfinished Passover?’ For the number of cups of wine He drank?
Wow! Yet not shocked you cannot connect the dots about the 4 cups and Jesus sacrifice.And this whole thing is almost a non-sequitir, we are discussing commemoration vs. sacrifice of literal body.
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Originally Posted by Nicea325
According to you,not Jesus! I’ll take Jesus’ words over yours anyday.
And yet you flat out ignore:Okay, let’s use Jesus’ words
John 6
55For my flesh is real food and my blood is real drink
This bread is my flesh, which I will give for the life of the world.” 52 Then the Jews began to argue sharply among themselves, “How can this man give us his flesh to eat?”
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Originally Posted by Nicea325
And He also does not say: This bread IS ONLY a symbol of my flesh-does he? Or this bead ONLY REPRESENTS my body-does? But you get my point?
Exactly! Did He hold a door in His hand and bless it and say: This IS my Body? Or was it merely symbolic?Yes, but He’s HOLDING the bread and wine. In the context of the Passover. The disciples could see that it was a symbol. He didn’t hack off his skin.
Exactly so familiar the non-believers (as you are) said:The Jews, I think, were familiar with symbolism.
*“How can this man give us his flesh to eat?” *
*“This is a hard teaching. Who can accept it?” *
From this time many of his disciples turned back and no longer followed him.
Why so much fuss over a SYMBOL?
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Originally Posted by Nicea325
And show me where God says: I am going to “INCARNATE” into man?
It is very relevant. Should we deny the Incarnation since it is not exclusively said? God can do whatever He wants,whether you comprehend or not.Not sure how that’s relevant. We’re supposed to take all of this literally, remember? Yet Jesus calls the bread His ‘flesh.’ Not His body.
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Originally Posted by Nicea325
Is it not a foreshadowing of better things to come?
Well no offense,but you ‘think’ and what God said differ vastly. Jesus said: “DO THIS…”…not pick and choose.Sure. I think Jesus fulfilled that on the cross. Doesn’t mean we have to keep eating His literal body all the time.
No sure where you are getting with this?How does an omnipresent physical body not confuse the two natures?
Wow! So you being a mere mortal creature question God with: “Where can his…” Do question His incarnation? Again,your carnal knowledge hinders you greatly. One more time, God has no limits.He can be where He wants. The question is where can his physical body, His flesh be?
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Originally Posted by Nicea325
Hmmmm? So Origen was confused?
Origen, in a homily written about A.D. 244, attested to belief in the Real Presence.
“I wish to admonish you with examples from your religion. You are accustomed to take part in the divine mysteries, so you know how, when you have received the Body of the Lord, you reverently exercise every care lest a particle of it fall and lest anything of the consecrated gift perish. You account yourselves guilty, and rightly do you so believe, if any of it be lost through negligence” (Homilies on Exodus 13:3).
Harsh words for merely A SYMBOL?
And it certainly is NOT an argument against it either.Sure, I respect the Lord’s Supper too. This is not an argument for transubstantiation.
That Origen believes in the RP as just gave you reference to it. If it is only a symbol as you believe where are his writings condemning the RP as a heresy or usurpation from Christ?Read the passage, and then you can tell me what it means.
If He is the foundation of TRUTH,then why cannot He gives His literal Flesh and Blood?God cannot perform logical impossibilities. He is the foundation of truth. That is what we are trying to ascertain, does this doctrine make logical sense or should it be revised?