I understand, and I agree that either side, as is the case in anything, has the right to support their view in a sound fashion from scripture and in a sound fashion from history.
it is not merely a right that should be recognized, but rather each side should actually recognize that sound arguments exist in opposition to their own views. (obviously not convincing to all, but at least sound).
With that said, leaving ill-informed arrogant assertions out of it for the moment, it seems fair to say, based on your assessment, that Jesus did not leave Christianity with a way to know, with certainty, the truth regarding the Eucharist? Forgetting about who is right and who is wrong for the moment - is that what you believe?
I would like to make your question more precise. First, Christianity is a religion and therefore it doesn’t know things. The USA and IBM also don’t know things…in each case it is the individuals within Christianity, within the USA and within a corporation who actually possess knowledge and certainty. As such, I think your question should be reworded to read: It seems fair to say, based on your assessment, that Jesus
did not leave Christians with a way to know,
with certainty, the truth regarding the Eucharist?
Second, “certainty” is a subjective and relative thing. I possess certainty that there is no “real bodily presence” and (I expect that) you possess certainty that there is a “real bodily presence”. We both possess certainty b/c our fallible natures allow us to be absolutely certain and wrong at the same time. I suspect that you are contemplating a level of certainty that has absolutely no possibility of error…a perfectly infallible knowledge. I don’t see how that would work even if I adopted your point of view and believed that the CC possesses an infallible teaching authority. In order to arrive at that belief my fallible mind would have to ask and answer the following questions (and more):
a) did God provide his church with an infallible teaching authority?
b) if so, does that infallible teaching authority continue until this day?
c) if so, is that infallible teaching authority found in the CC?
After my fallible mind answered those questions all in the affirmative I could then, like you, claim that I can know with certainty the truth regarding the Eucharist by looking to the infallible teaching authority found in the CC…but if I am to be completely honest, I would have to acknowledge that, at its root, my knowledge is still founded on the conclusion of my
fallible mind at (a), (b) and (c) and b/c my mind is ** fallible**, I would have to admit there is a possibility that I erred in answering (a), (b) and (c). If I possibly erred WRT (a), (b) and (c), then I must acknowledge that my certainty regarding the truth of the CC’s Eucharist may also be in error. One can’t achieve a perfectly infallible knowledge and still be human, unless one is also fully God…it ain’t gonna happen for us.
Now you seem extremely uncomfortable with that reality, so allow me to point out that (what you call) the CC suffered exactly from such uncertainty for a good period of time. Suppose you were born in 250 AD and lived a long life of 70 years. Suppose you were a Christian from Jerusalem. During your lifetime, you would never have had perfect certain knowledge WRT things such as 1) what is scripture and what isn’t?; 2) is Jesus a member of a trinitarian Godhead or not?; and 3) does Jesus possess two natures or one? If you had asked your bishop any of those questions, he might have excluded Revelation WRT the first, provided an Arian answer WRT the second and provided a monophysite answer WRT the third. Even if he provided the current Catholic answer WRT all three, you still wouldn’t have perfect certain knowledge b/c bishops err. Until the CC’s infallible teaching authority ruled on the matters in question, one does not achieve perfect certain knowledge (even with your approach and even disregarding the problem with needing to and answer (a)- (c) utilizing a fallible mind). If it is your contention that the Church can’t work properly when its members lack access to infallible teaching WRT the key matters, then it seems that you are saying that the Church couldn’t work properly in the first few centuries…and I wouldn’t agree with you (yet again

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