I understand that LDS believe this. The question at hand is why? Who says they only had that knowledge
after their disobedience?
Why? None of us knows for sure, we both have our opinions and we both can give our thoughts to support them.
The only example of what knowledge they had after that I can think of is that they were ashamed of their nakedness, which makes perfect sense. Shame is a result of sin.
I don’t see any mention of this type of relationship being evil, only that their eyes were opened, and that they know they were naked. I guess we have different view here, I don’t believe that any sin was committed. Disobedience, yes, transgression, yes – but not sin Please explain why you think they sinned.
Paul, I appreciate you at least attempting to take on the question I posed in the original post on this thread, but I think you are being somewhat evasive and beating around the bush. The direct question I asked has to do with the supposed contradictory nature of God’s two commandments given to Adam and Eve. How can God give two commandments back to back that would be contradictory? It is my position that God does not set up his children with impossible situations like this. Commandments are commandments, not suggestions, and therefore He would never set two commandments in conflict with one another.
I have no reason not to share my thoughts and beliefs, your initial post describes to me some thoughts that I am not familiar with. Therefore I wanted to read the post which formed the basis of your comment and read the comment for myself.
Like I said I have not come across the idea that Adam and Eve disobeyed on commandment to fulfill another. In my thoughts, I have not considered that they had this motivation. It is clear that scripture says that Eva was enticed by the idea that she could become like God in knowledge which doesn’t fit with the above notion. I’m not persuaded that it was a deliberate choice to disobey the commandment so they could be fruitful and multiply.
This may have nothing to do with it, but as interesting aside In my study of the Bible I have read that according to Jewish thought on their scriptures the blessing to be fruitful was directed to Adam only and not Eve. So, and I’m not sure, I’m wondering if Eva did not transgress the prohibition to eat of the tree at all, it is interesting thought.
The facts of the narrative do not support a conclusion that Adam and Eve could not have procreated prior to the Fall.
My thoughts, and I believe LDS thought, is that they could physically have children, but did not know they could. As far as the blessing to be fruitful goes there is no time line indicated for this blessing to be realized. The details of the narrative show that, no matter what one may believe as to when she could bare children, Eve didn’t until out of the garden. So it really is a moot point.
There is absolutely no reason from the narrative to conclude that Adam and Eve thought they would have to break one commandment to uphold another.
I agree.
Did God know in advance what would happen? Yes, of course, because He is not bound by time and is omniscient. Does that mean He would force Adam and Eve to sin in order to bring about a good end? Of course not. They did it of their own free will, and certainly not because they wanted to procreate. That has nothing to do with why they sinned.
I don’t think God forces anyone to act in one way or another, however I believe situations were placed before Adam and Eve the required them to make a decision. In this case, I believe, Eve wanted to be like the parent, and with misleading outside information made a choice to be like the parent.
Could Adam and Eve have had children before the Fall? Certainly. There is no reason at all to suspect otherwise. God created them in a perfect state of grace. They were married while in this state. The marriage union includes the sexual union, as created by God for the procreation of children. Had the Fall not occured, they would have had children who were also in a perfect state of grace. But the Fall did occur, and they lost their state of grace, and as a result their children never had it to begin with.
Could they have children before leaving the garden? I’m sure that they could have, as you say there is no reason to suggest in scripture why they couldn’t. Though In my mind this is a moot point, the fact of the matter is that they didn’t. What we have left is to speculate as to the reasons why they didn’t have children in the garden.
Perhaps for the LDS this is all really about the denial of original sin. To admit that Adam and Eve were capable of having children prior to the Fall (in a perfect state of grace) would imply that the Fall caused children to not be born in that state of grace (and that’s called original sin). It’s almost as if LDS teaching is trying to minimize the seriousness of the sin which caused the Fall, perphaps in an attempt to deny the very concept of original sin.
I don’t know much about the Catholic doctrine on original sin, but as you have defined it above, I certainly would disagree with it. Even though they disobeyed God’s command, I do not believe Eve or Adam committed sin as scripture defines it.
Paul