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CatholicCrusade
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The BC is not infallible… just read in it before what you quoted. How many baptisms are there? Answer: THREE.Yes baptism is necessary for salvation.
here is what Trent says specifically:
Council of Trent 6th Session, Decree Concerning Justification
****CHAPTER IV Jan 13, 1547 AD
****A BRIEF DESCRIPTION OF THE JUSTIFICATION OF THE SINNER
AND ITS MODE IN THE STATE OF GRACE
In which words is given a brief description of the justification of the sinner, as being a translation from that state in which man is born a child of the first Adam, to the state of grace and of the adoption of the sons of God through the second Adam, Jesus Christ, our Savior*. This translation however cannot, since promulgation of the Gospel, be effected except through the laver of regeneration or its desire, as it is written: Unless a man be born again of water and the Holy Ghost, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God.***[Jn 3:5]
Now, this statement may or may not fit the criteria for being an infallible statement, however, it does have the highest degree of authority since it comes from a Council.
The understanding of the Church is that Baptism is necessary for salvation. However, as St Thomas explains, that baptism has always been understood as a baptism of water, desire, or blood, all 3 of which are only one baptism, the other 2 deriving their efficacy from water baptism. Baptism of desire and Baptism of blood will also Justify a person. So yes, Baptism of desire will forgive on of their sins.
The Baltimore Catechism teaches this:
(cont’d)
Ephesians iv. 5: “ONE Lord, ONE faith, ONE Baptism”
Nicean Creed: “I confess ONE baptism for the remission of sins” (Confiteor UNUM baptisma in remissionem peccatorum).
To address what you quoted from Trent: not every word of a Council is infallible. I would suggest you read Catholic Encyclopedia’s entry on infallibility for more information on this.
The Church declares things ex Cathedra in pronouncements of Canons, such as Trent did in its Canons on Justifcation, Canons on Baptism, etc. (If any man saith… let him be anathema, etc.).
As far as what you said about “or the desire thereof”, did you read what I wrote previously: “The Council does say one cannot come to a forgiveness without the laver of redemption or desire thereof, but 1) it does NOT say: one CAN come to forgiveness without water or desire–it is a negative, not a positive statement”