The Filoque: Why is it important?

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You don’t know this, you are simply kidding yourself.

Try a little more studying from reputable sources.
*
Michael*
Sure I do. We had a thread on it a little while ago.

You can test this for yourself with a thought experiment.

The Catholic Church adopts the Orthodox position re: the Filioque.

How many Patriarchs and Orthodox agree to papal authority the next day?

The number would approach zero, because this is a red herring.
 
Your analogy breaks down in the second half of this quote. ] The filioque is not only added to the Creed but in being attached to an original profession (I believe in the Holy Spirit, the Lord and giver of life, who proceeds from the Father), qualifies the meaning of the procession of the Holy Spirit.
I could just as easily come up with analogies that do speak to matters directly addressed in the Nicene Creed. Truths about God’s attributes, about baptism, about the Church, about apostolic succession, etc. Would adding them to the creed make them untrue?

You are begging the question. You are assuming from the outset that the procession of the Holy Spirit was fully and completely treated at Nicaea and later at Constantinople simply because procession was mentioned. There is nothing in the creed that tells us that there is no more to be said on the matter. It does not exclude the possibility that the Spirit also proceeds from the Son, unless you want to start adding words to the creed that aren’t there.
Why might I ask did the Nicene Fathers not insert the filioque? I mean, it certainly would appear to have given them an edge on the Arianism they were combating. Also, don’t you find it a bit odd that, in the original Nicene Creed, immediately after mentioning the single procession of the Holy Spirit from the Father, the Fathers write, “Who with the Father and Son is worshiped and glorified”?
Rhetorical questions about why the Fathers didn’t do something are notoriously weak arguments. Why didn’t the Fathers put the word “only” in front of “proceeds from the Father”? Probably because it would seem quite strange to them to do so considering that Jesus breathed upon the apostles and told them to receive the gift of the Holy Spirit.

To answer your question though, Arius had already been roundly condemned at Nicaea, and they felt that it was enough to explain that Jesus Christ is one in being with the Father. The clause about procession didn’t come until later. It does not seem odd to me at all that Nicaea didn’t go on to explain in detail the procession of the Holy Spirit.
The Council Fathers knew of the pairing of the Father and Son, but while mentioning the equal worship and glory due to them, they do not assign this dual relationship to the procession of the Holy Spirit.
So then there is no relationship between the Son and the Spirit. Your argument proves too much. On the other hand, if you admit to a relationship, then you also have to admit that it is not explicated in the creed.
As a final note, I notice that in Roman Catholicism Creeds are simply seen as a “summary” of basic beliefs, a public profession of beliefs. Yes, as symbols, they are indeed summary of beliefs. But Creeds, especially conciliar ones, are much more than this. They are eminently theological, each word tightly bound with intended meaning. The Council Fathers did not simply sit down one day and make a list of important beliefs and added them one to the next; they carefully worded the Creeds to protect against heterodoxy.
Your observations are wrong. We believe the same thing. However, none of this let’s us know if the filioque is a heresy.
An addendum of my own: When I mention Nicene Creed, I am referring to the final form–the one adopted in 381 at Constantinople I. It should be evident that I am not against the additions made in 381 to the 325 Nicene Creed. It’s how the additions are made and their relation to previous confessional creeds that is important.
Yes, you have a little bit of a problem in that regard. 🙂 This is why I contend that the issue with the filioque is not necessarily that it was added, but how it was added. I really think all this has to do with the authority or lack thereof of Rome.
I made a mistake in my last post, referring to the Nicene Fathers, which should really be the Fathers of Constantinople. To be quite honest, I momentarily forgot (which I should have known better) that the procession clause was not added until Constantinople in 381, although the H.S. clause was there in the beginning.
If the Holy Spirit was mentioned in Nicaea, how in the world can there be any later additions? I think that you’ve just refuted your own position.
It is true that Nicaea is the Council that is best known for defending against Arianism. Constantinople, however, continued to address the heresy that had already lasted 60 years.
Or I suppose it could just as easily be seen as supporting the addition that was made after that by Rome to deal with Arianism.
 
This is pretty sad…
Not really. The authority of the Bishop of Rome is going to be a problem no matter whether we are talking about the filioque or some other doctrine. By deeming the filioque a heretical doctrine, you are adding heresy on top of schism.

What I find sad is that so many Orthodox assume that what the RCC teaches today about the filioque is manifestly heretical without having made any theological inquiry into the issue.
Doubly sad.

But thanks for admitting something many Roman Catholics have been loathe to admit elsewhere in CAF.

This is why we cannot commune with Roman Catholics, and partly why Eastern Catholics are banned from communion in Orthodox churches: they MUST believe the filioque to remain in their church, even though they are often permitted to recite the Creed without it as some sort of minor concession.

Of course the whole practice is fraudulent, and keeps many Eastern Catholics in a church where they would not wish to be if they understood how this works as well as you do.
Why? What they profess is true - that the Spirit proceeds from the Father. Again, I find it sad that you exclude from communion Catholics on the basis of the filioque when the Orthodox here have been unable to explain what is heretical about it. If it isn’t heretical and you are excluding us for it, how sad is that?
 
I Your observations are wrong. We believe the same thing. However, none of this let’s us know if the filioque is a heresy.
.
Please give us definition of heresy acceptable to you.

What is it? Something contrary to Pope’s teaching? Something not in compliance with somethng else?

Give us a criterion acceptable to you.
 
No. The Council had decreed the right way of saying what we believe and also said that there should be no change.

A pope agreed to this.

The wording is important because it discusses the relationship of the persons in the Trinity

In changing the wording the Catholic church
  1. went against what they’d previously agreed to
a) changed (in concept) the relationship of the nature of the Trinity
b) the Holy Spirit is made to be lesser than the other two persons
3) did so unilaterally - without reference to another Council

Can you clarify these issues ?​

  • 1. Does Orthodoxy rule out the possibility, however remote (conceptually or in time or otherwise), that the two doctrines might be able to be be expressed in a manner which preserves the Orthodox faith on the matter as well as ours ?
  • 2. Is it part of the Orthodox faith that the Roman doctrine cannot under any circumstances be in accord with that of Orthodoxy, unless the Roman doctrine is totally rejected ?
  • 3. How significant are such of the objections as do not arise from the Trinitarian theologies involved ? For example: is the action of the Pope in 1014 in not allowing the Filioque into the Creed as significant for Orthodox rejection of the Filioque as the strictly intra-Trinitarian doctrine of Orthodoxy is ?
  • 4. To what extent is the Filioque rejected by Orthodoxy because of matters other than the Blessed Trinity ?
    I want to understand the Orthodox understanding - not to argue. So if you can help, thanks for doing so 🙂
 
Originally Posted by tgdesq:
You are begging the question. You are assuming from the outset that the procession of the Holy Spirit was fully and completely treated at Nicaea and later at Constantinople simply because procession was mentioned. There is nothing in the creed that tells us that there is no more to be said on the matter. It does not exclude the possibility that the Spirit also proceeds from the Son, unless you want to start adding words to the creed that aren’t there.
And you’re assuming that the Fathers left the matter of the procession of the Spirit open-ended for the future.
 
Originally Posted by tdgesq:
Rhetorical questions about why the Fathers didn’t do something are notoriously weak arguments. Why didn’t the Fathers put the word “only” in front of “proceeds from the Father”? Probably because it would seem quite strange to them to do so considering that Jesus breathed upon the apostles and told them to receive the gift of the Holy Spirit.
The Fathers were drawing directly from Scripture. Plus, the notion of the Father as sole first principle was commonly accepted. It was subordination of the Son that was the danger of the time, and the Fathers were demonstrating that the Son was one in essence with the Father, rather than simply of like essence, or worse yet.
 
Originally posted by tgdesq:
To answer your question though, Arius had already been roundly condemned at Nicaea, and they felt that it was enough to explain that Jesus Christ is one in being with the Father. The clause about procession didn’t come until later. It does not seem odd to me at all that Nicaea didn’t go on to explain in detail the procession of the Holy Spirit.
Yes, I admit the mistake that the procession clause did not come until 381. The Holy Spirit is simply mentioned in the original Creed, without the clause of procession.

Still, although Arianism was condemned in 325, Arianism did not die out. In fact, it thrived, which is the reason why St. Athanasius had to write against Arianism. And then there was semi-Arianism–that the Son is of like essence to the Father. Arianism was still an issue in 381.
 
Originally Posted by tgdesq:
So then there is no relationship between the Son and the Spirit. Your argument proves too much. On the other hand, if you admit to a relationship, then you also have to admit that it is not explicated in the creed.
🙂

The Creed does explain that the Son was incarnate by the Holy Ghost (Spirit).
Originally Posted by tgdesq:
Your observations are wrong. We believe the same thing. However, none of this let’s us know if the filioque is a heresy.
We believe the same thing, eh? :rolleyes:
If the Holy Spirit was mentioned in Nicaea, how in the world can there be any later additions? I think that you’ve just refuted your own position.
What are you talking about?

The Holy Spirit was mentioned in the 325 Creed but the procession clause was not, although the procession clause is directly from Scripture. The procession clause was added to the initial Holy Spirit clause in the Creed of 381. The Holy Spirit was not added to the 381 Creed, but the procession clause, among other things, was.
 
Originally Posted by tgdesq:
Or I suppose it could just as easily be seen as supporting the addition that was made after that by Rome to deal with Arianism.
From an RCC perspective, the fact that the Creed of 381 added phrases to the Creed of 325 to clarify matters and guard against heterodox views is seen as a demonstration of the legitimacy of the filioque added for a similar purpose, yes.
 
What I find sad is that so many Orthodox assume that what the RCC teaches today about the filioque is manifestly heretical without having made any theological inquiry into the issue.
This is an incredible thing for you to state.

Obviously you must be speaking from 2000 years of observing Holy Orthodoxy! Do you make this up as you go along? :rolleyes:
Why? What they profess is true - that the Spirit proceeds from the Father. Again, I find it sad that you exclude from communion Catholics on the basis of the filioque when the Orthodox here have been unable to explain what is heretical about it.
WE do…you don’t listen.

If you are unaware, the exclusion from communion is the main discipline the early church used…and Holy Orthodoxy uses to this day. We do not commune heretics, and those among us who would consent to do so are likely to be excommunicated as well.

We pray what we believe and we believe what we pray, we don’t pray one thing and think another. And we do not commune those who would dispute Christian theology.

It keeps the faith community in sync theologically. We have nothing left to turn to but the deposit of Faith as handed to us: no artificial colours, no artificial flavours, no fillers or additives…99 and 44/100% pure.

Thus, Eastern Orthodox Christians who became Uniates, communed with Rome of their own accord, were likewise excommunicated. Rome had not changed or repented, therefore they were out of line to commune the Pope and other RC.

It is plainly clear that they made these decisions in many cases under duress, or possibly were tricked into it. This is sad. But when they have seen the error they are welcomed back fully like the Prodigal Son.
If it isn’t heretical and you are excluding us for it, how sad is that?
But it most definitely is heretical. Plus the RCC has been piling up on the new doctrines since it ran off the rails with the filioque, and the fringe elements are multiplying beyond control! All of this under supervision of the bishop of Rome and his own appointed curial officials and bishops.

Too bad…very sad.

Michael
 
We have nothing left to turn to but the deposit of Faith as handed to us: no artificial colours, no artificial flavours, no fillers or additives…99 and 44/100% pure.
It might be difficult for a Catholic to understand this idea that the Orthodox Faith is 99 and 44/100% pure. For example, what happened to the remaining 56/100%?
Also, haven’t the teachings of the Orthodox religion changed a bit over the centuries? For example, it was previously taught that women should wear headcovering in an Orthodox Church, but it looks like this is not followed in some of the Greek Orthodox Churches in our area. And some Greek Orthodox Churches allow organ music. Also, the teaching on the use of contraceptives has changed, hasn’t it. (I am not denying here that the teaching in Catholicism has changed on NFP, or on other issues, I was just interested in your use of the percentage of 99 44/100%. It is not clear to me how someone would arrive at that exact percentage. )
 
And you’re assuming that the Fathers left the matter of the procession of the Spirit open-ended for the future.
I don’t assume that because I don’t need to. You presented the argument that since procession is mentioned in the creed nothing can be added to that understanding. In rebuttal I pointed out, among many other things, that the Holy Spirit was mentioned in Nicaea I. Then at Constantinople I or sometime thereafter the procession of the Holy Spirit from the Father is included. If your hermeneutic is correct - that once the Fathers speak in council to an issue nothing further can be added - then we wouldn’t expect the creed to state anything new about the Holy Spirit at a later time either. But it does. And why wouldn’t we expect that? The creed does not set forth all the truths of Christianity even on points that it directly discusses. That is why I find the argument wanting that since procession was addressed in the creed there isn’t anything more to it.
The Fathers were drawing directly from Scripture. Plus, the notion of the Father as sole first principle was commonly accepted. It was subordination of the Son that was the danger of the time, and the Fathers were demonstrating that the Son was one in essence with the Father, rather than simply of like essence, or worse yet.
And thank God for that. I disagree that Scripture and the Fathers do not attest to the Holy Spirit proceeding from the Father and the Son as from a single principle through a single spiration. I can give you many ECF’s who support that proposition as well as Scriptural testimony.
The Creed does explain that the Son was incarnate by the Holy Ghost (Spirit).
Like I said, it proves to much. Under your hermeneutic the only relationship between the Son and Spirit is that the Son by the power of the Holy Spirit became man. Is this really the only thing the Orthodox know and believe in terms of the relationship between those two Persons?
We believe the same thing, eh? :rolleyes:
We believe the same thing with respect to the role of the creed, which is the only thing you wrote about in the paragraph I addressed. 🙂
What are you talking about? The Holy Spirit was mentioned in the 325 Creed but the procession clause was not, although the procession clause is directly from Scripture. The procession clause was added to the initial Holy Spirit clause in the Creed of 381. The Holy Spirit was not added to the 381 Creed, but the procession clause, among other things, was.
This is what I’m talking about: On the one hand you claim that nothing more can be said about the procession of the Holy Spirit, on the other hand you claim that more can be said and was said about the Holy Spirit after Nicaea I already addressed the Holy Spirit. Shouldn’t what was decided at Nicaea I about the Spirit be all that can ever be said? If the answer is no, then why a different standard for procession? That is why I said it looks like you’ve refuted your own standard.
From an RCC perspective, the fact that the Creed of 381 added phrases to the Creed of 325 to clarify matters and guard against heterodox views is seen as a demonstration of the legitimacy of the filioque added for a similar purpose, yes.
That is correct, and is what was stated at Florence.
 
This is an incredible thing for you to state.
Peace Hesychios. I did not mean to imply that there hasn’t been Orthodox theology addressing the filioque. I just haven’t seen any here. What I have seen are arguments that we should interpret the early councils to mean that the filioque is per se heretical. Those arguments do not hold up. I’ve seen arguments that a fallible non-ecumenical council held in the East condemning the filioque as heretical does it. I maintain that the EO did not understand how the West really understood the filioque when that happened. And I admit that Rome had no small part to play in this confusion. In retrospect it was unwise for Rome not to seek the counsel of the East when it included the filioque in its creed.

But there’s the history for you. Maybe if I take a different approach. What about this verse from John 15:

26"When the Counselor comes, whom I will send to you from the Father, the Spirit of truth who goes out from the Father, he will testify about me."

The most innocuous verse I could find that clearly does show that the Spirit proceeds from the Father but also mentions Jesus. What does it mean for Jesus to send the Spirit that goes out from the Father? In your view it may have nothing to do with double procession, but at least it’s a point of departure for us to start discussing the issue.
 
Originally Posted by tgdesq:
I don’t assume that because I don’t need to. You presented the argument that since procession is mentioned in the creed nothing can be added to that understanding. In rebuttal I pointed out, among many other things, that the Holy Spirit was mentioned in Nicaea I. Then at Constantinople I or sometime thereafter the procession of the Holy Spirit from the Father is included. If your hermeneutic is correct - that once the Fathers speak in council to an issue nothing further can be added - then we wouldn’t expect the creed to state anything new about the Holy Spirit at a later time either. But it does. And why wouldn’t we expect that? The creed does not set forth all the truths of Christianity even on points that it directly discusses. That is why I find the argument wanting that since procession was addressed in the creed there isn’t anything more to it.
Firstly, I think the two confessions, namely confession of belief in the Holy Spirit and confession of belief in the Holy Spirit, need to be distinguished. They are certainly related, but to confess that one believes in the Holy Spirit is different from confessing that one believes that the Holy Spirit proceeds from the Father. They are two separate, although compatible, beliefs.

Secondly, I’m not arguing that once the Fathers say something nothing more can be added. I do allow for certain additions that clarify previous declarations. What I am saying is that, once the Fathers have made a declaration on something, nothing can be added to that previous declaration by future churchmen in such a way that the original meaning of the primary declaration is changed. And if anything is added, it is nothing new but always has been believed in the Church. I am not convinced that when the Pope conceded to the insertion of the filioque that he was doing justice to what the Council Fathers at Nicaea and Constantinople, mostly Eastern bishops, meant when they met in these two Eastern sees. Most of the books I have read, and not all anti-Catholic Orthodox books, earmark St. Augustine as the originating force behind the filioque, although some point out that origins of the filioque can even be found in Tertullian. I would like to study more, but I first want to learn Greek and Latin, if I have time.

Now, I’m not an expert, and I yet need to study the Cappadocian Fathers, since their theology was influential in the creedal formulation at Constantinople, but this is where I am at right now on the filioque.

There are at least three main reasons why the Orthodox reject the inclusion of the filioque: 1) Because a Council (I believe it may have been Ephesus in 431) declared that the Creed was to remain unchanged. 2) Because the filioque was added without the approval of an Ecumenical Council, 3) Because of perceived theological errors.

You mention in your post that you can show me many ECF who held to the filioque. Do you believe that the Nicene and Constantinople Fathers, for the most part Eastern Christians and before the time of St. Augustine, believed what the Roman Catholic Church today believes concerning the relation between the Holy Spirit and the Son? Did they have a theologically less developed understanding than Roman Catholics today?

How would you react if you read a Doctor of the Church write something to the effect of: “We do not speak of the Spirit as proceeding from the Son”? I know that Eastern Catholics emphasize how East and West “speak” different and express the Christian faith differently, but are really, when all is considered, talking about the same reality. What is your view of this common attitude amongst Eastern Catholics today?

God bless. I need to go to bed in order to attend Divine Liturgy early next morning at the ACROD church! I can’t receive the Eucharist yet, but it’s all still good! 😃

Slava Isusu Christu!
 
I’m just about to go to bed, but I just wanted to add that, of the three reasons I present, the third one is the one I consider most central.
 
They are certainly related, but to confess that one believes in the Holy Spirit is different from confessing that one believes that the Holy Spirit proceeds from the Father. They are two separate, although compatible, beliefs.
Well, that seems a little bit arbitrary on your part. They both deal with the Holy Spirit.
Secondly, I’m not arguing that once the Fathers say something nothing more can be added. I do allow for certain additions that clarify previous declarations.
I agree with this.
What I am saying is that, once the Fathers have made a declaration on something, nothing can be added to that previous declaration by future churchmen in such a way that the original meaning of the primary declaration is changed.
I think I agree with this if I’m understanding you correctly. The later addition of the procession of the Holy Spirit from the Father does not change the meaning of the previous declaration that we are to believe in the Holy Spirit. But neither does procession from the Son change the meaning of procession from the Father, unless you presuppose that the council meant that the Spirit proceeds solely from the Father. But the council doesn’t state that.
And if anything is added, it is nothing new but always has been believed in the Church. I am not convinced that when the Pope conceded to the insertion of the filioque that he was doing justice to what the Council Fathers at Nicaea and Constantinople, mostly Eastern bishops, meant when they met in these two Eastern sees. Most of the books I have read, and not all anti-Catholic Orthodox books, earmark St. Augustine as the originating force behind the filioque, although some point out that origins of the filioque can even be found in Tertullian.
Definitely Tertullian, and I would also argue St. Basil.
There are at least three main reasons why the Orthodox reject the inclusion of the filioque: 1) Because a Council (I believe it may have been Ephesus in 431) declared that the Creed was to remain unchanged. 2) Because the filioque was added without the approval of an Ecumenical Council, 3) Because of perceived theological errors.
The first two I won’t address because although they bear on whether what Rome did was a legitimate exercise of authority, they do not let us know if the filioque is heretical per se. Theological error and inconsistency with revelation and the Fathers are certainly relevant.
Do you believe that the Nicene and Constantinople Fathers, for the most part Eastern Christians and before the time of St. Augustine, believed what the Roman Catholic Church today believes concerning the relation between the Holy Spirit and the Son? Did they have a theologically less developed understanding than Roman Catholics today?
As for the first question, I believe that at least some of the Eastern Fathers did reach the same theological conclusions. Some explicitly, and some as a necessary consequence of what they taught. The way in which they reached those conclusions is not always identical with the way in which the RCC reached them. The second question: To the extent theology as a discipline has developed, and it obviously has, the Fathers, whether from East or West, did not have that understanding. They did of course live near to the time of the apostles, which is why we give such great weight to their dogmatic conclusions.
How would you react if you read a Doctor of the Church write something to the effect of: “We do not speak of the Spirit as proceeding from the Son”? I know that Eastern Catholics emphasize how East and West “speak” different and express the Christian faith differently, but are really, when all is considered, talking about the same reality. What is your view of this common attitude amongst Eastern Catholics today?
The quote above is a little bit ambiguous. I guess I’d need to see it in context. I don’t really have an answer for what you are calling a common attitude amongst ECs. I am assured over and over again by the Orthodox here that this is their view, but have only had one or two ECs express any problem with the filioque. Even then it’s gone along the lines that it isn’t part of their tradition, not that they believe it’s heretical. That’s all I can tell you.
 
Hello Bob,
It might be difficult for a Catholic to understand this idea that the Orthodox Faith is 99 and 44/100% pure. For example, what happened to the remaining 56/100%?
Also, haven’t the teachings of the Orthodox religion changed a bit over the centuries? For example, it was previously taught that women should wear headcovering in an Orthodox Church, but it looks like this is not followed in some of the Greek Orthodox Churches in our area. And some Greek Orthodox Churches allow organ music. Also, the teaching on the use of contraceptives has changed, hasn’t it. (I am not denying here that the teaching in Catholicism has changed on NFP, or on other issues, I was just interested in your use of the percentage of 99 44/100%. It is not clear to me how someone would arrive at that exact percentage. )
Headcoverings and organ music? These are not doctrinal. Our doctrine has not changed.

Perhaps it would be helpful to look at the RC explanation that there is a difference between discipline and dogma. We don’t normally refer to those terms but it could apply.

What you are describing is a reflection of Economia. No slippery slope here! 😃

Likewise for the issue of contraception.

We have always taught that abortion is murder, and any means which will cause the death of a zygote is killing, whether chemically or mechanically. These are not means to prevent pregnancy but to terminate it. Some pills could have such an effect, and would be forbidden.

Other methods are not necessarily ruled out, it becomes a pastoral matter while the motivation of the couple (and the spiritual state of each) is taken into consideration. An important point is that the pastor is usually involved in the process of discernment, and the faithful do not have a sense of abandonment or alienation from the church over the subject. Good counsel is provided and the family remains plugged-in to the spiritual life.

BTW, NFP (the rhythm method) is often the method of first choice, but barrier methods are not thereby automatically excluded. And Orthodox have an enormous number of standard days per year of fasting AND abstinence, which includes refraining from sexual encounters (I think this is generally unknown in the RC).

Holy Orthodoxy is rightly reknown for it’s natural stubborn conservatism. So this is not a matter of liberals undermining church teaching, it is well thought out. There is no conflict between traditional church attitude and teaching and the small measures of economia shown.

This might be contrasted with the large numbers of young RC who willfully reject their churches teaching, receive no spiritual counsel and often (even usually) fall into the trap of using an abortifactant method! This may be because the only real advice they receive comes from MD’s and friends, who are more interested in the material wellbeing of the couple than their spiritual wellbeing. Some couples eventually develop feelings of alienation from the church and stay away. Others must deal with the anxiety and hypocrisy of being “cafeteria Catholics” if they choose to continue attending and taking communion. All of these results can be extremely damaging to the faith community in the long run.

Michael
 
Hello Bob,
Headcoverings and organ music? These are not doctrinal. Our doctrine has not changed.

Perhaps it would be helpful to look at the RC explanation that there is a difference between discipline and dogma. We don’t normally refer to those terms but it could apply.

What you are describing is a reflection of Economia. No slippery slope here! 😃

Likewise for the issue of contraception.

We have always taught that abortion is murder, and any means which will cause the death of a zygote is killing, whether chemically or mechanically. These are not means to prevent pregnancy but to terminate it. Some pills could have such an effect, and would be forbidden.

Other methods are not necessarily ruled out, it becomes a pastoral matter while the motivation of the couple (and the spiritual state of each) is taken into consideration. An important point is that the pastor is usually involved in the process of discernment, and the faithful do not have a sense of abandonment or alienation from the church over the subject. Good counsel is provided and the family remains plugged-in to the spiritual life.

BTW, NFP (the rhythm method) is often the method of first choice, but barrier methods are not thereby automatically excluded. And Orthodox have an enormous number of standard days per year of fasting AND abstinence, which includes refraining from sexual encounters (I think this is generally unknown in the RC).

Holy Orthodoxy is rightly reknown for it’s natural stubborn conservatism. So this is not a matter of liberals undermining church teaching, it is well thought out. There is no conflict between traditional church attitude and teaching and the small measures of economia shown.

This might be contrasted with the large numbers of young RC who willfully reject their churches teaching, receive no spiritual counsel and often (even usually) fall into the trap of using an abortifactant method! This may be because the only real advice they receive comes from MD’s and friends, who are more interested in the material wellbeing of the couple than their spiritual wellbeing. Some couples eventually develop feelings of alienation from the church and stay away. Others must deal with the anxiety and hypocrisy of being “cafeteria Catholics” if they choose to continue attending and taking communion. All of these results can be extremely damaging to the faith community in the long run.

Michael
Hello Michael:
Thanks for the detailed explanation. What you have been saying is quite sensible.
 
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