L
LilyM
Guest
Symbolic and literal meanings do sometimes coexist in scripture - and these can occur in the SAME verse having literal and symbolic senses, not just neighbouring ones! So it’s not inconsistent to say one and the same passage can be BOTH literal and symbolic, let alone that one passage is literal and the next symbolic.This thread is not about relics it is not about the holy grail it is about an inconsistant position which hold that Jesus was literal in v 19 and symbolic in v20
It shows and proves the fallacy of the Catholic position.
John’s letters to the seven churches in Revelation are a good example.
Now of course they were real churches in John’s day, John really wrote to them (obviously, hence Revelation!) and almost certainly had the real problems that he describes - at that time that he was writing. Otherwise they would’ve been scratching their heads over the nonsense he was writing.
At one and the same time those literal churches represented the entire Church of God in its various ages and stages and problems.