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secular_freedom
Guest
Not at all. How is it a fact? Not all changes constitutes a change in definition.It’s not an assumption, it’s a fact.
Why so? Your argument simply doesn’t follow, as a matter of logic. It’s quite consistent to hold that two consenting adults should be able to marry and that adults and children should not be able to marry.Why not? If you can change the definition of marriage from between on man and one woman, to two consenting adults, why can’t you change it to whatever you want it to be?
You have already done so
It’s absolutely what you said: permitting the change would permit any and all changes.. That is not what I said,