The Importance of Mary in Catholicism

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In the ancient world, because the king had many brides, a woman did not receive the title of queen until her son took the throne.
The queen was not married to the king, because there were far too many wives vying for such a title. And they couldn’t all be called queen. The position of queen was held by the king’s mother. She was known as the queen mother.
If Mary’s Son has become the King of Kings (of both heaven and earth) then the Mother has become the Queen of heaven and earth
Pope Pius XII stated, “Mary is Queen by grace, by divine relationship, by right of conquest and by singular election. And her kingdom is as vast as that of her Son and God, since nothing is excluded from her dominion.”
Our Lord also gave to the Church and each individual soul His Mother, the Queen of Heaven. For many centuries Christians have been accustomed to meditate upon the ruling power of Mary which embraces heaven and earth, when they consider the fifth glorious mystery of the rosary which can be called the mystical crown of the heavenly Queen.
To love Jesus is to also love His mother.
This is why I say your question is illogical. It’s like asking if you still have a marriage without the husband/wife.
 
In all seriousness, your logic is based on fallacies. How can you call Mary, blessed, without honoring her.
She said, “For behold, from this time on all generations will count me blessed.” She did not say, “From this time forward all generations will honor me.” We truly do consider her “blessed,” having had been chosen amongst all Jewish women to give birth to the Messiah (no Gentile woman would have been chosen).
And how can you deny the clear language of Luke 1:38 that Mary did indeed consent to her pregnancy?
It’s not consensual language. Gabriel did not ask her consent and report it back to God. What she did was believe that there would be a fulfillment of what had been spoken TO her by the Lord (see Lk. 1:45). See my previous post here.
The reason you take these positions is to support the lies that man has no free will and that nothing that man does matters in his going to heaven.
I’ve stated no such thing. I have stated that no man is saved (all the saved go to heaven) based on works of any kind except the “finished” work of Jesus Christ. That salvation (and one’s entrace into heaven) is based on one’s faith in Christ alone.
And the lies and distortions build until you think that implying that Mary was an adultress is okay because its extends someone else’s statements.
I, personally, have never implied that Mary was an adulterous. Please STOP slandering me.
Remember, we said that if Mary hadn’t consented, then she would not have become pregnant by the Holy Spirit because the Holy spirit would not have proceeded against Mary’s will. You are the one that said that she didn’t consent, which would have led to the Rape charge.
I didn’t present this mundane, “rape,” logic- YOU GUYS DID!!! I merely followed it out to its logical conclusion - based on YOUR mundane reasoning. Also, I certainly do acknowledge free will. I have told you many times, Paul, that I am not a Calvinist. But none of this has to do with the dialogue between Gabriel and Mary. Based on the text itself, Gabriel did not ask for Mary’s consent. Mary did, however, BELIEVE that there would be a fulfillment of what was spoken TO her by Gabriel (see Lk. 1:45). Not asked of her by Gabriel.
 
She said, “For behold, from this time on all generations will count me blessed.” She did not say, “From this time forward all generations will honor me.” We truly do consider her “blessed,” having had been chosen amongst all Jewish women to give birth to the Messiah (no Gentile woman would have been chosen).It’s not consensual language. Gabriel did not ask her consent and report it back to God. What she did was believe that there would be a fulfillment of what had been spoken TO her by the Lord (see Lk. 1:45). See my previous post here.I’ve stated no such thing. I have stated that no man is saved (all the saved go to heaven) based on works of any kind except the “finished” work of Jesus Christ. That salvation (and one’s entrace into heaven) is based on one’s faith in Christ alone.I, personally, have never implied that Mary was an adulterous. Please STOP slandering me.I didn’t present this mundane, “rape,” logic- YOU GUYS DID!!! I merely followed it out to its logical conclusion - based on YOUR mundane reasoning. Also, I certainly do acknowledge free will. I have told you many times, Paul, that I am not a Calvinist. But none of this has to do with the dialogue between Gabriel and Mary. Based on the text itself, Gabriel did not ask for Mary’s consent. Mary did, however, BELIEVE that there would be a fulfillment of what was spoken TO her by Gabriel (see Lk. 1:45). Not asked of her by Gabriel.
MD…you stated:
I*'ve stated no such thing. I have stated that no man is saved (all the saved go to heaven) based on works of any kind except the “finished” work of Jesus Christ. That salvation (and one’s entrace into heaven) is based on one’s faith in Christ alone.*

Question: How do you reconcile this statement of yours to this verse:

Matt 7:21 Not every one that saith unto me, Lord, Lord, shall enter into the kingdom of heaven; but he that doeth the will of my Father which is in heaven.

or this verse:
Matthew 16:27 (King James Version)
27For the Son of man shall come in the glory of his Father with his angels; and then he shall reward every man according to his works.

So, if one the Father’s will is to honor or call the Woman who begat her son Blessed, are you going to follow it or not?

And how will you get your reward, which is salvation (we both believe this), if you do not do his will, the works he wants you to do?
 
Did you misunderstand my question?
I already know what you don’t do. I asked you what you did do.
No, I didn’t misunderstand your question. I presume that what you mean by what we “don’t” do is erect statues of her, kneel and pray to her, elevate her to unbiblical positions, consider her our “mother,” or believe she has the power to intercede for us on earth and dispense “graces” in order to do “gracious works” which contribute to one’s future salvation. If that’s what you mean, then you’re right. We don’t do any of those things as a way of considering/counting her “blessed.”
So tell me exactly what you do that demonstrates that you don’t ignore her.
We count her “blessed” because of what was said TO her and what was fulfilled through her. It’s that simple. We can go no further. We cannot exceed what is written concerning her.
I already gave you my biblical foundation for the requirement to honor Mary based on both the Old and New Testaments.
AGAIN, there is no instruction to “honor” Mary either from Christ, the Apostles (they never even mention her in the Epistles) or Scripture. If I say any more on this subject I’ll be kicked off the forum.
The C.A. forum has no policy against debating over biblical interpretations.
Well, my warning states differently. And the post I uploaded was deleted.
As I clearly demonstrated, she is your mother.
I would differ with you based on that John passage but I was already warned. Suffice it to say that that passage does not present Mary as everyone’s “mother.”
Mary did not say that all generations would “consider” her blessed. She said all generations would “call” her blessed
Same thing! My translation interprets it “count me blessed.” Silly reply.
Our focus is Christ also. But at Christmas we also honor the role that Mary, Joseph, the shepherds, the angels & the Wise Men played.
But you don’t elevate Joseph, the shepherds and the wise men to unbiblical, heavenly positions. Nor do I see statues of Joseph, the shepherds or the wise men erected in all your church buildings throughout the year. To which of the shepherds do you personally pray? Do you say a “Hail Shepherds?”
But whatever occurred between Mary and Gabriel, I think you and I both agree that God (being the God of mercy and justice) would not commit a serious crime against Mary.
You’re right back to your mundane “rape” logic. I already gave you my response to that and “Paul c” used it to slander me (“Christian charity?” I think not). So I’m not responding to that mundane reasoning anymore, which I consider placing that wonderful event into a vulgar context anyway. That’s your hang-up not mine.
Therefore, I want you to explain to me the moral difference between my above kidnapping example and your interpretation of the Gospel of Luke.
My interpretation is based on what is REVEALED in the Scriptural passage itself. Not your stories which have no validity to the actual Biblical text. Show me in the text where Gabriel asks for Mary’s consent.
 
MD…you stated:
I*'ve stated no such thing. I have stated that no man is saved (all the saved go to heaven) based on works of any kind except the “finished” work of Jesus Christ. That salvation (and one’s entrace into heaven) is based on one’s faith in Christ alone.*

Question: How do you reconcile this statement of yours to this verse:

Matt 7:21 Not every one that saith unto me, Lord, Lord, shall enter into the kingdom of heaven; but he that doeth the will of my Father which is in heaven.

or this verse:
Matthew 16:27 (King James Version)
27For the Son of man shall come in the glory of his Father with his angels; and then he shall reward every man according to his works.
Off topic, but you may PM me.
So, if one the Father’s will is to honor or call the Woman who begat her son Blessed, are you going to follow it or not?
And how will you get your reward, which is salvation (we both believe this), if you do not do his will, the works he wants you to do?
(1) Show me in Scripture where the Father instructs anyone to “honor” Mary. It’s Mary herself who said all generations will count me blessed. And she was right. She didn’t say all generations will “honor” me.

(2) According to the Scriptures salvation is not a reward but a GIFT, by grace through faith (Eph. 2:8-9). As is justification (Rom. 3:24) and eternal life (Rom. 6:23). But that’s all I can say about that on this thread. You may PM me.
 
No, I didn’t misunderstand your question. I presume that what you mean by what we “don’t” do is erect statues of her, kneel and pray to her, elevate her to unbiblical positions, consider her our “mother,” or believe she has the power to intercede for us on earth and dispense “graces” in order to do “gracious works” which contribute to one’s future salvation. If that’s what you mean, then you’re right. We don’t do any of those things as a way of considering/counting her "blessed."We count her “blessed” because of what was said TO her and what was fulfilled through her. It’s that simple.
As I stated earlier, just because someone “counts” / “considers” Mary blessed does not mean that he can’t also ignore her. I clearly showed this with my “feuding brothers” example. You have yet to reply to that reasoning in defense of your statement that you do not ignore her.
We can go no further. We cannot exceed what is written concerning her.AGAIN, there is no instruction to “honor” Mary either from Christ, the Apostles (they never even mention her in the Epistles) or Scripture.
What the Catholic Church says about Mary comes from the Deposit of Faith, which includes Scripture and Sacred Tradition. So it comes from God. Your statements show that you are an adherent to Sola Scriptura, but I am sure you are aware that Catholics don’t accept this doctrine. This is a Catholic forum, so if you judge what we say and do about Mary based on Sola Scriptura, then first prove that Sola Scriptura is a valid doctrine to begin with. As far as Catholics (and Orthodox, and certain other Protestants) are concerned, it is not a valid doctrine.
If I say any more on this subject I’ll be kicked off the forum. Well, my warning states differently.
Here is the link to the CA forum policy rules:
forums.catholic-questions.org/showthread.php?t=116150

And here is a link to CA’s banned topics:
forums.catholic-questions.org/showpost.php?p=2363920&postcount=9

Exactly which rule(s) were you warned against? This is the second time I’ve asked.
And the post I uploaded was deleted.I would differ with you based on that John passage but I was already warned. Suffice it to say that that passage does not present Mary as everyone’s "mother.
I didn’t ask for a link to your post, I asked for a link to the entire thread. Are you saying the entire thread was deleted?

And I never brought up the Gospel of John. Evidently you are referring to the “Behold your mother” exchange at the foot of the cross. I did not use this, or any of the Gospel of John, to demonstrate that Mary is our mother, but instead what the NT teaches elsewhere about our relationship with Christ. So it appears that you certainly can address what I stated earlier without either of us bringing up the Gospel of John.
But you don’t elevate Joseph, the shepherds and the wise men to unbiblical, heavenly positions. Nor do I see statues of Joseph, the shepherds or the wise men erected in all your church buildings throughout the year. To which of the shepherds do you personally pray? Do you say a “Hail Shepherds?”
No, we do not award them the same degree of honor we do Mary, but we still honor them. What do you do? Ignore them, too? And for the record, most Catholic churches have a statue of Joseph prominently displayed throughout the year.
You’re right back to your mundane “rape” logic. I already gave you my response to that and “Paul c” used it to slander me (“Christian charity?” I think not). So I’m not responding to that mundane reasoning anymore, which I consider placing that wonderful event into a vulgar context anyway.
Here is exactly what I asked of you in my last post: “I will withhold all labels, so there is no issue of me taking you out of context. I’m not even necessarily saying that your interpretation of Luke is the same thing as the example I gave of the kidnapped woman. I am simply asking you to explain to me the fundamental difference between the two.”

And remember, I did not say that my kidnapping example was “rape”, but a “serious crime”, and left it at that. So explain how your interpretation of Luke is different from my example. Explain how your interpretation is not a crime. It seems that you are unable to, and are also unwilling to admit that that there is no fundamental moral difference. Saying “I’m not responding to that mundane reasoning anymore” is simply a way of looking for an excuse to back out of a debate rather than admit that you have an indefensible position.
My interpretation is based on what is REVEALED in the Scriptural passage itself. Not your stories which have no validity to the actual Biblical text. Show me in the text where Gabriel asks for Mary’s consent.
Mary understood that she was being offered a choice, or she would not have said, “Let it be done unto me.” So the text clearly shows that Mary, in the very least, thought she was being offered a choice. And the conception did not happen until after this statement. Plus, it happened* immediately* after this statement. She was not pregnant when Gabriel arrived and greeted her, but only after she said, “Let it be done unto me…”

But let me ask you this: According to your interpretation, what would have been the outcome of this event had Mary said, “Let it NOT be done unto me…”?

And I also challenge you to find one credible Protestant Scripture scholar or theologian who backs up your position concerning Mary not giving consent.
 
What I find shocking is the unimportance of Mary among those who have twisted scripture and fashioned their own theology. Do they believe that God erred in using Mary to bring Jesus forth? How much truth are they willing to discard in order to be comfortable? And, my, how they have kicked Luther and Calvin under the bus! I guess Martin and Jean just looked a little “too Catholic” for modern tastes.

Catholics have the wonderful grace of just being Catholic 100% of the time. All others must split their time between being anti-Cathoilc and then their denomination after. It is a shame.

Pray for them! Their problem is not with the Catholic Church, but with God.
 
Mary understood that she was being offered a choice, or she would not have said, “Let it be done unto me.”
You now speak for Mary? Gabriel made a statement to her. Show me in the text where Gabriel asks for Mary’s consent. Mary’s response was one of faith, not consent. This is confirmed in Lk. 1:45:"And blessed {is} she who believed that there would be a fulfillment of what had been spoken to her by the Lord."It doesn’t say “blessed is she who gave consent to what was offered.” You’re a story teller, Eric. But your stories can’t change Scripture. 😃
 
You now speak for Mary? Gabriel made a statement to her. Show me in the text where Gabriel asks for Mary’s consent. Mary’s response was one of faith, not consent. This is confirmed in Lk. 1:45:"And blessed {is} she who believed that there would be a fulfillment of what had been spoken to her by the Lord."It doesn’t say “blessed is she who gave consent to what was offered.” You’re a story teller, Eric. But your stories can’t change Scripture. 😃
As I have said before, your interpretation is fundamentally flawed because you take the Scriptures out of their proper context–the liturgy.
 
As I stated earlier, just because someone “counts” / “considers” Mary blessed does not mean that he can’t also ignore her.
Which brings us right back to my original question. Can there be a Catholicism without Mary?
 
Which brings us right back to my original question. Can there be a Catholicism without Mary?
There can’t be Christianity without Mary! Haven’t we gone over this? Mary cooperated in salvation history, of her own free will. Are you suggesting that Mary was not given a free will?
 
As I have said before, your interpretation is fundamentally flawed because you take the Scriptures out of their proper context–the liturgy.
The context is based on the text, my friend. And the text is Scripture.
 
The context is based on the text, my friend. And the text is Scripture.
But the Text cannot stand on its own, You need to know context. The liturgy is the natural habitat for the Scripture. Here is some advice: read Letter and Spirit by Dr, Scott Hahn. He is a Scripture Scholar. He recieved his BA from Grove City College and his M Div from Gordon-Cromwell Theological Seminary before getting a PhD from Marquette. Read it with an open mind. The reason I suggest this is that Dr. Hahn can articulate things much better than I.
 
You now speak for Mary? Gabriel made a statement to her. Show me in the text where Gabriel asks for Mary’s consent. Mary’s response was one of faith, not consent. This is confirmed in Lk. 1:45:"And blessed {is} she who believed that there would be a fulfillment of what had been spoken to her by the Lord."It doesn’t say “blessed is she who gave consent to what was offered.” You’re a story teller, Eric. But your stories can’t change Scripture. 😃
It is Scripture that clearly demonstrates that Mary understood that she was given a choice. As I (and others) have been saying, she said, “Let it be done unto me…”
So my question to you is:
  1. Why would on earth would she have said that if unless she thought that she was being given a choice? This is not a rhetorical question so how about answering it.
And while you are at it how about answering all my other questions???
So here they are again:
  1. Based on your interpretation of Luke, what would have happened if Mary had said, “Let it NOT be done unto me…”?
  2. What is the policy rule that CA said you were in danger of violating that prevents you from addressing my statements on the motherhood of Mary?
  3. What is the link to the forum thread in which you said my theory (concerning Mary as our mother) was addressed in the past? And keep in mind, I have not used the Gospel of John, so threads that discuss this gospel are not applicable to my argument.
  4. What are the fundamental moral differences between my kidnapping example and your interpretation of Luke? And if you persist in saying that this question is “silly” then explain what makes it silly.
  5. What is the name (and quote) of at least one credible Protestant Scripture scholar or theologian who supports your statement that Mary did not give her consent?
  6. How does simply “counting Mary blessed” mean that you don’t ignore Mary (based on my feuding brothers example)?
  7. What makes Sola Scriptura a valid doctrine? It’s not in the Bible, so how can a extra-biblical doctrine that tells us to reject extra-biblical doctrines possibly be true?
Which brings us right back to my original question. Can there be a Catholicism without Mary?
For someone who doesn’t answer a whole string of my questions, it seems a bit presumptuous for you to expect me to answer yours. Nevertheless, what my esteemed “fellow-Filmer”, David, said way back in Post #2 works for me as well.
 
Off topic, but you may PM me.(1) Show me in Scripture where the Father instructs anyone to “honor” Mary. It’s Mary herself who said all generations will count me blessed. And she was right. She didn’t say all generations will “honor” me.

(2) According to the Scriptures salvation is not a reward but a GIFT, by grace through faith (Eph. 2:8-9). As is justification (Rom. 3:24) and eternal life (Rom. 6:23). But that’s all I can say about that on this thread. You may PM me.
  1. According my mundane reasoning, I believe the angel honored Mary first. Now that that is done. I would like you to show me where God instructs anyone to NOT “honor” Mary. When was the last time you ever called Mary “blessed”? I have never heard a non-Catholic say Blessed Mary… EVER!!!
  2. Do not forget about about Ephesians 2:10! But yes… Salvation is a gift that we, like St. Paul, must work for with fear and trembling. The Church is right. You are wrong. PM me.
 
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