Q
Qoeleth
Guest
But is such an isomorphism necessary (or even possible)? The ideatum of God is not an isomorph of the idea of God. This alterity (and indeed, infinite alterity) is the experience of transcendence.Here a muddling issue is the meaning of the word “exists.” In these examples you seem to be using exists to label a possible perception, feeling, or emotion without showing that these mental states have incarnations beyond the individual minds that hold them. But this isn’t sufficient for showing that something exists (as in is part of reality).
Only the source of fear can be a fabrication of the child’s mind (imaginary)whose “existence” is limited and confined to their mental state. The child’s feelings about a fabrication isn’t sufficient for showing that the source of fear “exists” in any other sense. But your argument isn’t trying to show that something “exists” in an imaginary sense.
When talking about an emotion or perception it is generally talking about grand notions of beauty (or something similar). Though the item that is still addressed is how do you demonstrate isomorphism (for want of a better word) between this mental state and the phenomenon in reality that you wish to demonstrate?
To give an analogy- we are in a closed room, and open a door, and catch a glimpse of something amazing outside. Such an experience is like listening to Bach. The glimpse is not distinct or consistent, and there is no way of knowing whether it is ‘real’ or an hallucination. But at a certain level, it doesn’t matter. It is an experiential proof. The only proof of an experience is the experience itself. Granted, it is non-transitive, which the original argument acknowledges. We know ‘something’ happenned which somehow enriched us, and in that sense it is real. And why not call it God- since it has no other name?