S
SyroMalankara
Guest
Where do you see a “rejection of scriptural language”? I see plenty of Scriptural language, as well as a Greek term created for clarification.I think I should just say that I am not a) “sola scriptura” believer.
I also should say that the rejection of scriptural language does not make the Nicene definition in opposition to scripture. It is worth noting, but not some type of definitive point that means Nicea is a departure from pre-Nicene orthodoxy or that Nicea is not compatible with scripture.
Ok. So where does the Creed state that we are Light from Light with the Father or Jesus? We are called to reflect God’s Light.I did notice that “connection.” I find it very tenuous. Let me ask you to firm it up a bit.
Is the point that God the Father (presumably) is called light (1 John 1:5). God the Son is called light (John 1:4,9). Light is Light and thus God the Father and God the Son are the same nature, homoousian?
Are we not to be the LIGHT of the world?
The Holy Spirit prevents the Church from error here; the Church uses Scripture to back up the teaching, not prove it or defend it.I think calling the linkage of light to Father and Son (assuming 1 John 1:5 is unambiguously the Father) is barely worth being called a scriptural defense of “homoousian.” Have I missed the significance of this or misunderstood the connection? Do you think this is the type of exegesis we should use when we declare something is scriptural?
Knocking down lots of straw men.You are correct. Perhaps I should say the ONLY place I have currently found in the Bible that provides a strong indication of HOW God the Father and God the Son are ONE is John 17:21. If you disagree why?
I might also say that John 17:21 makes a oneness predicated upon homoousian difficult.
Charity, TOm