You think the bishops just decided this on their own when they weren’t getting revelations anymore? What does Scripture say about it? Surely they consulted Scripture.
How much public revelation was there between 2nd century and early 1800 that you are aware of?
I do not believe scripture teaches what MODERN Catholics claim it teaches.* The ECF are on my side of this issue.* Do you not believe that the interpretation of scripture by the ECF (Irenaeus and Tertullian) should guide MODERN Catholic interpretation?
What I said was that the ECF expected there to be revelation after the close of the New Testament.* They did not see what MODERN Catholic see in scripture.* Irenaeus called the “Visions of the Pastor of Hermas” scripture.
He might be right, and I think the Pastor shows that Christ’s Church would be replaced by something lesser SOON. Tertullian expected revelation to continue.* He saw in the Montanus revelation, continuing revelation.* I lean away from believing Tertullian was completely correct about what was revelation.* The reason I mention St. Irenaeus and Tertullian is not because what they believed to be revelation was surely revelation, instead I say it is clear they did not share the MODERN Catholic interpretation of Scripture offered here.* They expected continued revelation.* They did not share the MODERN Catholic interpretation that somehow because Christ was the greatest of God’s revelation to man (I agree), that after the end of the generation that could have known Christ in the flesh (Paul likely didn’t but was part of the generation) public revelation would end.
Receiving revelation is a messy business.* I have not been able to find the earliest conception of INFALLIBILITY, but I almost think (almost think) INFALLIBILITY and continued revelation are mutually exclusive.* It is clear that the Bishops of Tertullian’s day rejected Montanus.* I have vague memories of something from this time being written concerning “no continuing revelation.”* Thus, I point to this time or later as when the “orthodox” decided Public Revelation ended.* I think it quite possible that it was much later, but I know of no place earlier.
Why did the Bishops of Tertullian’s day or whatever day claim Public Revelation ended when Tertullian, Irenaeus, and others didn’t believe this?* I have two thoughts.* First, all of human history is part of God’s plan.* God’s plan includes, “Christ was born, Christ was killed, Christ was resurrected.” AND it includes, “The Bride of Christ (the Church) was initiated, The Bride of Christ apostatized, The Bride of Christ was restored.”* How human agency played into these and how God guided them I do not know.* In addition to this, I think human agency is always involved.
You asked how much “public revelation” was present from the 2nd Century until the early 1800’s.* Well, as a LDS I do not draw the dividing line between public and private revelation the SAME way Catholics do.* I believe LDS deal with our Montanus folks by explaining that AUTORITY means that revelation for the entire church comes to “General Authorities.”* This means when a lady in ward is inspired of God just as surely and just as powerfully as any General Authority and she initiates that LDS primary program, the General Authority may seek God’s will and recognize it and then it become an inspired program throughout the church.* When John Delhin claims to know the path the church should take on Homosexual marriage, the General Authority my evaluate, pray, and offer God’s will for the entire church.
I think truth was revealed to one of the greatest Catholic minds ever in a vision he had.* After the vision, he claimed everything he had written was “straw.”* I believe what he wrote was a brilliant distilling of what was supposedly INFALLIBLE truth, and I believe he knew it was.* Thus there was no way to redo his brilliant text to align INFALLIBLE truth and the revelation of God he received.* So this brilliant man claimed all he had written was “straw,” didn’t write again, and never explained himself.* I suspect other Catholic clergy receive revelation like this from the 2nd – 19th century and even today.* I suspect Catholic laity receive revelation like this too.* But, nobody can claim it is “public revelation” due to the errors (sealed as infallible, irreformable) in the past.* BTW, the straw is
Summa Theologica and the great Catholic mind is of course Thomas Aquinas.
While I see “Authority” as restored in the restoration, I think the recognition of just how involved God is in His Church is of huge importance too. God leads His Church today as He lead His Church/People in the New Testament and Old Testament times.
Is it infallible truth that those who die “with original sin only” are forever denied the Beatific Vision?* It is quite clear that the Bishops at the Council of Florence and Lyons (and also Trent) claimed it was.* They were wrong. **Revelation could have prevented this mistake and if men determined to be men didn’t allow God to distill truth upon them, Public revelation could correct this mistake, but Public Revelation was denied.
I do not believe God restored public revelation so we can debate if God the Father, God the Son, and God the Holy Spirit are homoousian in the generic sense (I believe this) or homoousian in the numeric sense (Augustine believed this).* Important things like how we lead our lives and how God is active in the life of His Church were the reasons for the restoration, IMO.
Charity, TOm