The New is in the Old concealed, and the Old is in the New revealed...

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Now, just for the record, I would like to point out some very well known protestant (and even Catholic) claims regarding the Scriptures and how they believe the new is indeed in the Old concealed, and the Old is indeed in the New revealed.

I will briefly note that these views are merely a sampling of certain thoughts regarding how some protestant groups sometimes interpret the prophecies in the Old Testament (and likewise believe they are fulfilled in the New Testament era).

It needs to be stressed that not all protestants hold these views (and some Catholics might even hold some variations of these views). Nonetheless, many actually outright disagree with these views whereas others may subscribe in part to them without actually teaching them as an article of faith.

But the ones who do wholeheartedly hold these views do tend to sometimes be very anti-Catholic-- and very much do claim that the Old Testament knew something very specific about this Church age we live in.

Now, before I proceed with the protestant thoughts on this, I would like to start with the very first example an old view that was held around the earliest times of the Church by some well known Catholics, the idea of the culmination of the church during the Sabbath Millenium.

In this sense, I’m speaking of the view that the seven days of creation reflects a general overall 7000 year pattern within humanity which mirrors biblical history itself, the idea that a day with the Lord is as a thousand years so to speak.

In this sense, it was beleived that the sacramental nature of the Sabbath itself was intended in some way to foreshadow the final destiny of God’s creation-- that this seven day period also in some way represents the fullness of time as measured in the millennia of human experience.

In other words, they believed that the Sabbath was not just intended to make God’s people aware of their origins, but also of their destiny.

Of those within the early church who apparently did hold this view, it is believed that Barnabus, Irenaeus, Lactanius and even Jerome held this kind of view-- at least, the writings associated with them seems to indicate this.

Consequently, there are a few protestant bodies in our modern day which do indeed still subscribe to this view. And this view certainly does claim that the Old Testament knew something very specific about this Church age we live in.

In a related matter, another form of the symbolism of ‘days’ could be found in the death of Christ himself, at least according to some early church fathers.

In this sense, looking toward Hosea 6:1-3, they say that just as Christ died for two days and then arose on the dawn of the third day, Christ will physically leave this earth for two thousand years and then return near the beginning of the third miillennium.

In this view, some claim that it would be odd that the three days for the most important event in Christian history would be purely arbitrary. They attach more signifiance to the prophecy in Hosea than the New Testament writers attached to it-- and, yet, it is a reasonable conclusion to make without distoring the passage from Hosea either.

Regardless of whether this is true or not, there are indeed a few protestant bodies in our modern day which do indeed still subscribe to this view. And this view certainly does claim that the Old Testament knew something very specific about this Church age we live in too.
 
Now, having said this, I would like to move toward a common anti-Catholic claim that certain protestants employ against the Catholic Church-- the so-called apostasy of 1260 years derived from the book of Daniel.

The standard anti-Catholic claim regarding Daniel chapter 7 is that a 1260 year period was prophecied to occur, during whch the “beast” would reign on earth.

The figure of 1260 is arrived at by multiplying 360 days by three and a half. Many of these anti-Catholic claiments have decided that this 1260 year reign extends from the years 538 to 1798.

In order to make this work, they decided that in 538, the papacy first came into power, with the “Justinian Code”, a law which allegedly made the Pope boss in Europe.

The 1260 years ended, allegedly, in 1798, when Napoleon ‘defrocked’ Pope Pius VI in Rome and declared the Roman Republic.

I think it should be clear that I totally reject this anti-Catholic claim erroneously derived from Daniel 7. It’s not just a serious error against the Catholic Church. It’s actually quite a blasphemy against God himself in my opinion.

Even still, that’s not really the point for the sake of this discussion. The point is that the ones who do wholeheartedly hold this supremely negative view from Daniel 7 very much do claim that the Old Testament knew something very specific about this Church age we live in.

And, coming back to the point, if you hold any view which is similar to any of these above views apophasis, then you are indeed contradicting youself when you make the claim that the Old Testament knew nothing of this Church age.

Since you haven’t really expressed any of these views, I can’t say for certain whether you actually hold to any of them. So I’m willing to give you the benefit of the doubt on these issues. But it seems to me that your restricted theology could indeed reflect this kind of thinking.

So, just in case you do hold to any of these views, I will remind now in advance that, according to your own words, you do not actually believe that the Old Testament knew something of this Church age.
 
Mr. Ex Nihilo:
You most certainly are reading things into Paul’s theology-- just like the rest of us do.
The question is not whether people read things into the Scriptural record. Of course they do. Everyone does.
(1) No I don’t. Show me where I’m reading anything into his theology. (2) No, not everyone reads things into Scripture, that is, spiritualizes the Scriptures in order to conform them to their own preconceived ideas. Believe it or not some God fearing men actually believe God Himself has something to say, and He said it, and they take Him at His literal Word.
The question is not whether people read things into the Scriptural record. The question is whether the Holy Spirit is truly revealing the interpretion that is presented as the true Scriptural meaning of the text.
No. The question is whether or not the reader has the right (authority) to disregard the literal text and spiritualize or allegorize at will.

But one has no right to do that with any other literature, else you (the reader) would distort completely what the author himself was saying. What makes you think you have the right to impose such a method of interpretation upon God’s written Word? People think that because the Bible presents spiritual truths they have the right to spiritualize its contents at whim. But this method of interpretation, my friend, is the mother of all cults.
And, even with that, the Scriptural texts in question can certainly have a dualistic meaning-- one prophetic meaning usually fulfilled around the the time the prophecy was spoken, and a later meaning which is illuminated by the original event, a later event which the original event itself prophecies of.
This may or may not be the case with some prophecies but certainly not all. But when it comes to “covenants,” especially the “New Covenant,” it can be established only once and with the people to whom it was promised.

Nowhere is it taught in the N.T. that the New Covenant was instituted by Christ at Pentecost with the Church. And when you go back and read the contents of Jer. 31:31-40, the Church is nowhere to be mentioned, but instead the Lord literally states that that covenant will be made (established) with the “house of Israel and the house of Judah.” And this, dear friend, has not yet occurred.

As I pointed out in my previous posts, Jeremiah specifically stesses the fact that the “New Coveant” will be established with national Israel AFTER she is called back to her ancient homeland having been exiled from it for many years. And the prophet Ezekiel is in agreement with Jeremiah, expressed in chapters 36-39:Ezek. 36:23-28 “I will vindicate the holiness of My great name which has been profaned among the nations, which you (Israel) have profaned in their midst. Then the nations will know that I am the LORD,” declares the Lord GOD, "when I prove Myself holy among you in their sight. For I will take you from the nations, gather you from all the lands and bring you into your own land. Then I will sprinkle clean water on you, and you will be clean; I will cleanse you from all your filthiness and from all your idols. Moreover, I will give you a new heart and put a new spirit within you; and I will remove the heart of stone from your flesh and give you a heart of flesh (spiritual regeneration). I will put My Spirit within you and cause you to walk in My statutes, and you will be careful to observe My ordinances. You will live in the land that I gave to your forefathers; so you will be My people, and I will be your God."And the Apostle Paul concurs with both the prophet Jeremiah and Ezekiel (as with all the O.T. prophets) in Romans chapter eleven when he speaks of that nation’s future “fulfillment” (11:12) and “acceptance” and “life from the dead” (11:15).“And this is My coveant with them, when I take away their sins” (Rom. 11:27).James is also in agreement when he gives us the chronology in the Book of Acts quoting the prophet Amos:“After these things (i.e., the calling out of His Church) I will return, and I will rebuild the tabernacle of David which has fallen, and I will rebuild its ruins, and I will restore it, in order that the rest of mankind may seek the Lord, and all the Gentiles who are called by My name, says the Lord who makes things known from of old” (Acts 15:16-18).Now Amos actually knew nothing of this Church age, but James changes his prophecy to “After these things,” whereas Amos literally wrote, “In that day…”
 
Mr. Ex Nihilo:
So, before I proceed further, let me be sure of your position on this matter.

You’re asserting that the Hebrew Scriptures have spoken in the following matters…
Code:
   1. Historically teaches of God's creation of the heavens and the earth...

   2. Historically outlines the time from Adam to Noah, culiminating in the Great Deluge...

   3. Historically outlines the time from Noah to Abraham, the father of faith...

   4. Historically outlines the time from Abraham to Moses, the law giver...

   5. Historically outlines the time from Moses to King David, the man whom God promised the Messiah would descend from...

   6. Historically outliness the time from King David to the various periods of exile from whence Ezra initiated reforms upon their return...

   7. Prophetically speaks of Christ's 1st Coming...

   8. Prophetically speaks of Christ's 2nd Coming...

   9. Prophetically speaks of the Millenial Reign of Christ after his 2nd Coming...

  10. Prophetically speaks of the reign of Christ in Jerusalem throughout all the world with King David as his 'prime minister' so to speak...

  11. Prophetically speaks of the end of time where the devil and his false apostles and his 'children' so to speak will perish in the abyss...

  12. Prophetically speaks of the end of time where all those who have truly believed thoughout human history will be raised in Christ forevermore...
…But, even though they speak on all these matters, the Hebrew Scriptures are utterly silent, without even a hint or glimpse of the Church Age in Christ that we currently live in?
By jove, I think you’ve got it, mate. 👍
You’re honestly claiming that the Old Testament knew nothing of this Church age?
No, I myself am not “claiming” anything, however, the Apostle Paul himself teaches it to be a “mystery of Christ which in other generations was not made known to the sons of men, as it has NOW been revealed to his holy Apostles and prophets in the Spirit” (Eph. 3:4-5). It’s Paul’s Epistles which gives us insight into this present age which “for ages has been hidden in God” (Eph. 3:9; cf. Rom. 16:25; Col. 1:26).
And you’re honestly claiming that the Hebrew Scriptures knew absolutely nothing of the mystery of this present Church age when Christ is building His Church, made up those who personally believe in Him for salvation, calling it out from both individual Jews and Gentiles? Are you 100% sure about this?
As sure as Paul who was chosen to be the revelator (through his Epistles) of this amazing mystery, this glorious, unforeseen age, when Christ is taking out from both groups (individual Jews and Gentiles) a people to form “one new man,” reconciling them “both in one body,” called the Church, His “Bride,” to whom He promised He would come again and receive them unto Himself that where He is there they would be also, and be with Him forever (Eph. 2:14-16; Jn. 14:1-3; 17:24; 1Thess. 4:14-18).
I’m sorry but this claim you’re making makes absolutely no sense to me.
I know. Because as long as you continue to be a student of Oregin and keep forcing your allegorical method of interpretation on the Scriptures you will never understand Paul or God’s present program for the Church and future program for Israel. Yet it’s all right there, literally, in black and white.
Why should I accept your word on this matter over the word of many Catholics, Orthodox and Protestant voices who are actually in agreement to some extent on this subject?
God plus one makes a majority. Can you show me, without allegorizing, where Paul or any of the N.T. writers pedagogically teach that O.T. Israel was a type of the Church and the Church the antitype of Israel?

And, btw, I do not hold to the “Seventh Day Millennial Sabbath” theory. Sounds nice, but one cannot prove it by Scripture. Nor do I subscribe to any of the scenarios you present in post #22.
 
I don’t want ot jumpin the middle of your discussion but just an FYI for you all. There are some really good in-depth studies of what you have been talking about at Scott Hahn’s website

http://www.salvationhistory.com/
 
I don’t want ot jumpin the middle of your discussion but just an FYI for you all. There are some really good in-depth studies of what you have been talking about at Scott Hahn’s website

http://www.salvationhistory.com/
I have to admit that I seem to be having trouble linking to this site. I would really like to read it though.

Is there another link that I could try?
 
Why do Catholics always outsource? Are you not allowed to think for yourselves?
Well, speaking of outsourcing, let’s talk about the bread and the wine for starters, and the priest in the order of Melchizedek-- that is, Jesus himself.

Back in Genesis 14:17-19 we read the following…
After Abram returned from defeating Kedorlaomer and the kings allied with him, the king of Sodom came out to meet him in the Valley of Shaveh (that is, the King’s Valley).
Then Melchizedek king of Salem brought out bread and wine. He was priest of God Most High, and he blessed Abram, saying,
Blessed be Abram by God Most High,
Creator of heaven and earth.
And blessed be God Most High,
who delivered your enemies into your hand.
Then Abram gave him a tenth of everything.
The king of Sodom said to Abram, “Give me the people and keep the goods for yourself.”
Later, when we read Psalm 110:3-5, we observe the following…
Your troops will be willing on your day of battle.
Arrayed in holy majesty, from the womb of the dawn
you will receive the dew of your youth.
The LORD has sworn
and will not change his mind:
You are a priest forever,
in the order of Melchizedek
.
The Lord is at your right hand;
he will crush kings on the day of his wrath.
Then later, in Hebrews 5:5-7, we read the following…
So Christ also did not take upon himself the glory of becoming a high priest. But God said to him,
You are my Son;
today I have become your Father.
And he says in another place,
You are a priest forever,
in the order of Melchizedek
.
During the days of Jesus’ life on earth, he offered up prayers and petitions with loud cries and tears to the one who could save him from death, and he was heard because of his reverent submission.
Likewise, mere verses later, in Hebrews 5:8-11, we read the following…
Although he was a son, he learned obedience from what he suffered and, once made perfect, he became the source of eternal salvation for all who obey him and was designated by God to be high priest in the order of Melchizedek.
We have much to say about this, but it is hard to explain because you are slow to learn.
Later on, within the same book, we read Hebrews 7:11-12 as follows…
If perfection could have been attained through the Levitical priesthood (for on the basis of it the law was given to the people), why was there still need for another priest to come—one in the order of Melchizedek, not in the order of Aaron? For when there is a change of the priesthood, there must also be a change of the law.
Later, in Hebrews 7:15-19, we likewise read…
And what we have said is even more clear if another priest like Melchizedek appears, one who has become a priest not on the basis of a regulation as to his ancestry but on the basis of the power of an indestructible life. For it is declared:
You are a priest forever,
in the order of Melchizedek.
The former regulation is set aside because it was weak and useless (for the law made nothing perfect), and a better hope is introduced, by which we draw near to God.
This is just my basic starting point from where I will later inquire about further questions. I suppose I could also discuss how the bread and the wine involved in Jewish worship also fore-shadowed the bread and wine that we serve in our Christian communion.

But didn’t the bread and wine offered by Melchizedek not fore-shadow the bread and wine that Christ offered at the Last Supper?

Likewise, didn’t the bread and wine offered by Jesus at the Last Supper not likewise fore-shadow the bread and wine that we serve in our Christian communion?

Furthermore, do the Christian Scriptures not repeatedly emphasise that Christ himself came in the order of Melchizedek-- that Christ was a priest forever, in the order of Melchizedek?

Again, this is just for starters. I’m now gathering up more information.

But if you agree with any of these things, things which the authors of the Scriptures did indeed believe fore-shadowed the New Covenent in Christ, then is it fair to say that you still believe that that the Old Testament knew nothing of this Church age?
 
As I already mentioned above, it is generally agreed by many Christian groups that the Patriarchal Age in some way corresponds to the Apostolic Age-- in particular, the 12 tribes of Israel strongly parallels the 12 Apostles for example. However, the similarity in general outline does not seem to rest there.
I’m thinking here of the 24 elders in Revelation 5:8. I did a Bible study on the Book of Revelation, and we learned that the 24 elders represent the 12 tribes of Israel and the 12 apostles.
 
(1) No I don’t. Show me where I’m reading anything into his theology.
Right here for starters.

Let’s review the texts in question…
Romans 16:25-26:
Now to him who is able to establish you by my gospel and the proclamation of Jesus Christ, according to the revelation of the mystery hidden for long ages past, but now revealed and made known through the prophetic writings by the command of the eternal God, so that all nations might believe and obey him—
This passage you quoted actually says that the mystery hidden for long ages past was revealed and made known through the prophetic writings.
 
Ephesians 3:4-5:
In reading this, then, you will be able to understand my insight into the mystery of Christ, which was not made known to men in other generations as it has now been revealed by the Spirit to God’s holy apostles and prophets.
This again comes back to an important distinction between not understanding the full meaning of a prophetic utterance and the radical claim that no one even conceived of what the prophetic utterance spoke of. I’ll agree with you on the first point. But the the later point is simply absurd and makes no sense in light the apostles own words.

For example, as I already said, Peter tells us how even the prophets may not have understood the chronology of their own visions nor their vision’s exact meaning for that matter.
1 Peter 1:10-12:
Concerning this salvation, the prophets, who spoke of the grace that was to come to you, searched intently and with the greatest care, trying to find out the time and circumstances to which the Spirit of Christ in them was pointing when he predicted the sufferings of Christ and the glories that would follow. It was revealed to them that they were not serving themselves but you, when they spoke of the things that have now been told you by those who have preached the gospel to you by the Holy Spirit sent from heaven. Even angels long to look into these things.
If those who preached these visions sent by God’s Holy Spirit did not actually understand the time and circumstances of their own visions, then we too may likewise not be able to fully understand all of them yet either. As Peter indicates, some prophecies were indeed intended to be understood only in the fullness of time, essentially only by those people of faith who will be living during the time foreseen by the prophets.

Paul was indeed a man chosen by God to clearly expound on these things since the fullness of time had come at last-- he lived and witnessed the events that were indeed prophecied. But this is a far cry from the claim that the Old Testament knew nothing of this Church age.
 
Anyway, let’s check the next one now. You quoted Ephesians 3:9 all by itself. But you left out some important parts here. Here’s a good majority of the text…
Ephesians 3:7-11:
I became a servant of this gospel by the gift of God’s grace given me through the working of his power. Although I am less than the least of all God’s people, this grace was given me: to preach to the Gentiles the unsearchable riches of Christ, and to make plain to everyone the administration of this mystery, which for ages past was kept hidden in God, who created all things. His intent was that now, through the church, the manifold wisdom of God should be made known to the rulers and authorities in the heavenly realms, according to his eternal purpose which he accomplished in Christ Jesus our Lord.
Again, the Hebrew Scriptires most certainly did believe that the Messiah would bring an ingatheirng of both Jews and Gentiles. You simply can’t get around this part.

Furthermore, as Romans 10:12-13 says…
As the Scripture says, “Anyone who trusts in him will never be put to shame.” For there is no difference between Jew and Gentile—the same Lord is Lord of all and richly blesses all who call on him, for, “Everyone who calls on the name of the Lord will be saved.”
This first phrase “Anyone who trusts in him will never be put to shame” comes from Isaiah 28:16. And this second phrase “Everyone who calls on the name of the Lord will be saved” comes from Joel 2:32.

Aren’t these passages indicating that the Old Testament, paticularly Isaiah 28:16 and Joel 2:32 knew something of this Church age?

Let’s look at Col 1:25-26 too…
I have become its servant by the commission God gave me to present to you the word of God in its fullness— the mystery that has been kept hidden for ages and generations, but is now disclosed to the saints.
The mystery that Paul is speaking of is that God had chosen to make known among the Gentiles the glorious riches of Christ, the epipany of Christ’s aappearance to bring the non Israelites into the faith. And this not a new idea within Judaism. In fact, many Jews expected the messiah to bring aboutt the conversion of many Gentile nations toward God.

For example, Isaiah 42:6 says…
"I, the LORD, have called you in righteousness; I will take hold of your hand. I will keep you and will make you to be a covenant for the people and a light for the Gentiles
Likewise, Isaiah 49:6 says:
It is too small a thing for you to be my servant to restore the tribes of Jacob and bring back those of Israel I have kept. I will also make you a light for the Gentiles, that you may bring my salvation to the ends of the earth.
Does this not indicate that the Old Testament knew something very specific of this Church age, something which very much mirrored Jesus’ own words to his apostles?

Let’s look at Isaiah 49:22 too…
This is what the Sovereign LORD says: "See, I will beckon to the Gentiles, I will lift up my banner to the peoples; they will bring your sons in their arms and carry your daughters on their shoulders.
So, once again, there is no mystery involved here. Most all Israeties understood that the messianic age would spread and it very much matches Jesus’ sayings here…
Matthew 28:18-20:
Then Jesus came to them and said, “All authority in heaven and on earth has been given to me. Therefore go and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them in[a] the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit, and teaching them to obey everything I have commanded you. And surely I am with you always, to the very end of the age.”

(2) No, not everyone reads things into Scripture, that is, spiritualizes the Scriptures in order to conform them to their own preconceived ideas.
And you’re persistently stressing that the Old Testament knew nothing of this Church age, right?

How do you know that this statement you made is not merely an example of you yourself attempting to conform the Scriptures to your own preconceived ideas?
 
I’m thinking here of the 24 elders in Revelation 5:8. I did a Bible study on the Book of Revelation, and we learned that the 24 elders represent the 12 tribes of Israel and the 12 apostles.
I agree. 🙂

This seems to be a very good example of the New in the Old concealed, and the Old in the New revealed.
 
Wow. I know it was late. But I didn’t realize my spelling was that bad last night. Just correcting some typos on this one. :o

Anyway, let’s check the next one now. You quoted Ephesians 3:9 all by itself. But you left out some important parts here. Here’s a good majority of the text…

Again, the Hebrew Scriptires most certainly did believe that the Messiah would bring an ingatheirng of both Jews and Gentiles. You simply can’t get around this part.

Furthermore, as Romans 10:12-13 says…

This first phrase “Anyone who trusts in him will never be put to shame” comes from Isaiah 28:16. And this second phrase “Everyone who calls on the name of the Lord will be saved” comes from Joel 2:32.

Aren’t these passages indicating that the Old Testament, particularly Isaiah 28:16 and Joel 2:32, knew something of this Church age?

Let’s look at Colossians 1:25-26 too…

The mystery that Paul is speaking of is that God had chosen to make known among the Gentiles the glorious riches of Christ, the epiphany of Christ’s appearance to bring the non-Israelites into the faith. And this not a new idea within Judaism. In fact, many Jews expected the messiah to bring about the conversion of many Gentile nations in some way toward their God.

For example, Isaiah 42:6 says…

Likewise, Isaiah 49:6 says:

Does this not indicate that the Old Testament knew something very specific of this Church age, something which very much mirrored Jesus’ own words to his apostles?

Let’s look at Isaiah 49:22 too…

So, once again, there is no mystery involved in this part regarding the Gentiles here. Most all Israeties understood that the messianic age would spread Judaism throughout the entire world-- and this concept very much matches Jesus’ sayings here when he advanced the Great Commision…
Matthew 28:18-20:
Then Jesus came to them and said, “All authority in heaven and on earth has been given to me. Therefore go and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit, and teaching them to obey everything I have commanded you. And surely I am with you always, to the very end of the age.”
Now let’s come back to your second point…

quote=apophasis No, not everyone reads things into Scripture, that is, spiritualizes the Scriptures in order to conform them to their own preconceived ideas.
[/quote]

And yet you’re persistently stressing that the Old Testament knew nothing of this Church age, right?

So how do you know that this statement you made is not merely an example of you yourself attempting to conform the Scriptures to your own preconceived ideas?

Aside from correcting these typos, the message remains the same. 🙂
 
Maybe so, but as I’ve demonstrated, it’s Pauline and not based on the theory of one man.
But I’m not talking about a theory of one man. I’m talking about a revelation by the Holy Spirit which has clearly taught the basic truth in almost all Christian denominations that the New is in the Old concealed and the Old is in the New revealed.

It’s true there have been major disagreements over the ages about exactly what authentically constituted the New being in the Old concealed and the Old being in the New revealed. But, nonetheless, we all agree that the New is in the Old concealed and that the Old is in the New revealed.

You’re the lone wolf on this one apophasis. Not us.
 
Since you’re trying to draw from history please take note that God always dealt with and through a minority, a remnant that believed and never departed from His literal Word.
And when exactly have we (we as in Catholic, Orthodox and Protestant) denied the literal Word?

The only thing we’re saying is that the literal Word also has further applications, many of which that are found in the Hebrew Scriptures and are prophetic of greater things to come as the Holy Spirit reveals within the Christian faith-- just as the Christian Scriptures says in Colossians 2:16-18 for example…
Therefore do not let anyone judge you by what you eat or drink, or with regard to a religious festival, a New Moon celebration or a Sabbath day. These are a shadow of the things that were to come; the reality, however, is found in Christ.
Do not let anyone who delights in false humility and the worship of angels disqualify you for the prize. Such a person goes into great detail about what he has seen, and his unspiritual mind puffs him up with idle notions.
Consequently, when you judge us the way you do, based on your own thoughts instead of the Holy Spirit’s thoughts, your unspiritual mind puffs you up with idle notions-- such as the idle notion that the Hebrew Scriptures are utterly silent, without even a hint or glimpse of the Church Age in Christ that we currently live in.

I can also point toward Hebrews 10:1 too which says…
The law is only a shadow of the good things that are coming—not the realities themselves. For this reason it can never, by the same sacrifices repeated endlessly year after year, make perfect those who draw near to worship.
When the authors of the Scriptures use this metaphor of a shadow prior to the reality coming, they’re speaking of a fore-shadowing, such as seeing the shadow of a person around the corner before the person actually comes around the corner to reveal themselves.
Foreshadowing is a literary device in which an author drops subtle hints about plot developments to come later in the story. Each of these hints widens the range of possible consequences and maintains tension throughout the narrative as these possibilities narrow. An example of foreshadowing might be when a character displays a gun or knife early in the story. Merely the appearance of a deadly weapon, even though it is used for an innocuous purpose — such as being cleaned or whittling wood — suggests terrible consequences later on.
And again…
If foreshadowing is done in a skillful or “honest” way in a mystery, however, many events which foreshadow the truth also work naturally at the same time as red-herrings at a more simple level, to lead the audience to a false conclusion. An example occurs in the film The Sixth Sense, in which scenes depicting the estrangement and lack of communication which occurs in the psychologist’s marriage, and his alienation from the world because of his problems, are later seen as clues of much darker significance (so much so, that some viewers were led to see the film twice, in disbelief at how effectively they were misled by character interactions which could be interpreted in two completely different ways).
 
Consequently, just as some viewers of the Sixth Sense were led to see the film twice, in disbelief at how effectively they were misled by character interactions which could be interpreted in two completely different ways, I would likewise advance the idea that Judaism is currently watching their own ancient history being played back to them vicariously through Christianity. Since the first coming of Christ, they have been generally sitting in disbelief at how effectively they were misled by the adversary to interpret their own Hebrew Scriptures in a way that was almost completely different from how God actually intended them to be interpretted by the Holy Spirit.

This can be seen here…
Romans 10:19:
Again I ask: Did Israel not understand?

First, Moses says, “I will make you envious by those who are not a nation; I will make you angry by a nation that has no understanding.”
And here…
Romans 11:11:
Again I ask: Did they stumble so as to fall beyond recovery?

Not at all!

Rather, because of their transgression, salvation has come to the Gentiles to make Israel envious.
When Christianity finally plays out in the fullness of God’s plan, finally many Jews will realize just how wrong they were-- and just how merciful God was to uphold his end of their Covenants all along (even though they themselves dramatically failed to fulfill their own part in these same Covenants).

Zechariah 12:10* said:
"And I will pour out on the house of David and the inhabitants of Jerusalem a spirit [a]
of grace and supplication. They will look on me, the one they have pierced, and they will mourn for him as one mourns for an only child, and grieve bitterly for him as one grieves for a firstborn son.

*Consequently, as a sidenote, I do not think the duality of this prophecy will fully come to pass until we Christians begin to understand that we too have sometimes persecuted Jews in a way not much different from how some Jews during the time of Christ persecuted Jesus himself.

In other words, I think we’re all a little bit guilty of deicide to some extent.
 
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