Actually my comments echoed those of the Franciscan who was interviewed a number of years ago on EWTN. They have been studying this for over 500 years as they look at the issue of Mediatrix of all Grace.
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…and they completely ignored the very real probability that a mother would weep for a son in that much pain…whatever the cause?
I don’t get it. Mary was real. Jesus the Christ was and is REAL. We are talking here about a woman, living, breathing, loving and beloved. She is not some cold blooded walking bit of theological purity; not a goddess so far above human emotion that her every tear has to be ascribed to some overweening concern for humanity even as she watches her son die in agony.
As to mentioning the length of time these Franciscans (who are monks and male and–according to everything I’ve ever read about 'em anyway–celibate and childless) as evidence of the accuracy of their observations is not helpful. After all, for over three thousand years priests of Ra and Isis debated with great zeal the attributes of the deities they were loyal to.
Didn’t make 'em right though, did it?
So I’m coming at this entire situation from a POV that is, well…sideways. While I am not sola scripturian, that is, ‘if it ain’t in the bible it ain’t worth anything,’ I do figure that revelation is ongoing, and I do believe that any new revelation/teaching worthy of being placed along side the bible IS scripture by definition.
I do not see where any ‘tradition’ can be used to prove something like this–after all, tradition is simply what people think about what is; it is not proof of what is.
So here’s the deal, for me: where is there ANY evidence that Mary: a. made this vow of celibacy I hear about, b.* had* to remain virgin for her entire life, c. that sex with her lawful husband would have been so gaspingly sinful, or d.that Jesus having mortal siblings (well, half-siblings) would destroy His claim to Son of Godhood?
I honestly do not get it.
No.
Really.
I don’t.
Now, by ‘evidence,’ I mean scripture; biblical or acceptable apocryphal evidence; any evidence from her family, friends, acquaintances, ANYthing that could be considered a prime source.
…and I do NOT mean someone telling me that oh, of COURSE she was always a virgin and of course she had no other children because the Tradition says so, and here is a verse that if we go back and tweak the Greek meaning a bit, supports the Traditional view.
In case y’all haven’t been introduced to the terms yet, I want exegesis, not eisegesis; I want the information taken FROM the writings, not the writings tweaked to support an already formed opinion…an opinion that, quite frankly, comes from a very long standing chauvinism and disdain for women and sex, even sex between married couples.
As for me, I don’t care whether Mary was virgin forever or not. It doesn’t matter in terms of her Son; He was born to be Who He was, and nothing MARY could have done after His birth would have changed Him. I believe that God chose very well in Mary, and she raised him right (obviously).
But where is the evidence that she raised him as an only child in a virtual convent rather than as the oldest of several in a loving family?
Could someone just give me some quotes here, please?
Please excuse the frustration evidenced here, Mr.S…most of this post is NOT aimed at you or your comments, but rather at the entire tenor of the thread.