A
adamlsp
Guest
There is more than one infintie set, countable and uncountable, but only one empty set. I see that.
Yes and no. If you think about zero as the limit of the function of 1/x (or any similar function) then yes, zero is infinitesimally small, while “infinity” is infinitely large (this is part of the branch of calculus). However, if you only consider the whole numbers (…-2, -1, 0, 1, 2,…) then zero is just like any other number (Though the division with zero is undefined).Zero is defined as the empty set. Zero is a concept much like infinity correct? Zero and infinity are intimately tied together.
Yes, and as you point out in your next post, there are infinitely many of those sets.Is infinity a set?
True.The empty set is a set with no members and because of this is unique.
Of course they are. The definition of a set is simply an abstract collection with zero or more elements in it. It is used everywhere, from pure mathematics, to object oriented programming to database design, ad infinitum.There are a lot of things that have no members and this is because they are not sets.
Not physical existence. But physical existence was never mentioned, we are only talking about hypothetical and abstract existence.How can there be a unique set with no members, we can’t just hypothesize this into existence.
What does the word “doubt” mean here? Set theory certainly raises lots of interesting problems, and if one is uncautious and starts to talk about the “set of sets” or the “set of all sets”, then some real thorny probelms will emerge. But we don’t go there, not in this discussion. Here we just talk about the simple, everyday sets, with zero or more members in them.I’m not decisively objecting I just wanted to raise these questions. There are those who doubt set theory despite is significant contribution to mathematics.
No, it is not right. We can say that the empty set contains no members. It may be trivial, but not false.Also saying anything about the empty set is vacuous right?
adamlsp said:“All things are true of the empty set,” as the saying goes. So to say nothingness, the content of the empty set, implies something will always be true right?
That is a syntactically correct sentence, but it refers to no actual tigers. One should not confuse “syntactically” correct linguistic constructs with sentences that actually say something about the real world or a mental abstraction.All tigers that are in loaves of bread are capable of speech. This is vacuous.
Not at all. The only thing we can say about the empty set, that it contains no members. That is not useless at all.So to say anything of the empty set is also. Though it is true, it is useless.
It simply does not follow, actually the opposite does.So we could say the contents of the empty world show that a necessarilly existent being exists. Is this right so far?
you miss the point: that sentence is synonymous with another in english and another in german and…Easy as a breeze. In order to illistrate it, I will give you a perfectly valid sentence - in Hungarian - and see what does it mean to you: “Sok hulyeseget beszelnek ossze ezek az istenesek”. Does it mean anything to you? Why not? Because there is no independent meaning to anything. The meaning of a sentence depends on the accepting mind: if the mind does not have the necessary information to decipher the meaning, then the sentence is meaningless - for that mind.
right: one sentence has more than one “meaning”. it can have more than one “meaning” that is completely unrelated to the sentence itself. how?Also very easy: it is the result of mutual agreement: the word “rain” is something we have been exposed to since childhood. I recall a nice little cartoon (from the British Punch magazine) which depicts a gentleman eating a thin soup is a restaurant and the waiter behind him looking out the window. The caption runs: “It looks like rain”. A beautiful example of a pun: where a sentence intentionally has two rather divergent meanings.
oh, it’s supported - you just happen not to think the support is very good. just like i don’t think your support for your own beliefs is very good…Ah, unsupported mythology raises its ugly head again.
no, it’s not: either that empty world is a world, and it is something, or it is nothing at all, not even a world.It is just as logical to imagine an completely empty world as it is logical to accept the notion of an empty set, which is a very useful mathematical concept. Since it is totally empty, there is nothing in it, therefore there can be no “maximally great” being in it either - therefore the idea of a “necessarily existing being” has been refuted.
The empty world is something but what is contains is nothing. A bag with no marbles basicly. If you doubt that this is possible can you give your argument?no, it’s not: either that empty world is a world, and it is something, or it is nothing at all, not even a world.
I think in the last 2/3 of your response you completely missed what I said. I’m assuming you know what vacuous means. (I’m not being rude, I’m just going slow so as to eliminate confusion) All elephants inside loaves of breads are pink. That statement is vacuous. So if I said the members of the empty set prove the existence of God. It would be true but useless. Like wise you could say the members of the empty set disprove the existence of God and this would be true. All is true of the members of the empty set. This idea is used in logic frequently. That from a false is you derive a truth the entire statement is truth. Also I did not mean physical existence because clearly there are other types of existence that surpass physics. Our thoughts I mean. And as a side note, do you believein free will? Is an easy question, define free will how you like and answer, instead of getting all dodgy.Yes and no. If you think about zero as the limit of the function of 1/x (or any similar function) then yes, zero is infinitesimally small, while “infinity” is infinitely large (this is part of the branch of calculus). However, if you only consider the whole numbers (…-2, -1, 0, 1, 2,…) then zero is just like any other number (Though the division with zero is undefined).
Yes, and as you point out in your next post, there are infinitely many of those sets.
True.
Of course they are. The definition of a set is simply an abstract collection with zero or more elements in it. It is used everywhere, from pure mathematics, to object oriented programming to database design, ad infinitum.
Not physical existence. But physical existence was never mentioned, we are only talking about hypothetical and abstract existence.
What does the word “doubt” mean here? Set theory certainly raises lots of interesting problems, and if one is uncautious and starts to talk about the “set of sets” or the “set of all sets”, then some real thorny probelms will emerge. But we don’t go there, not in this discussion. Here we just talk about the simple, everyday sets, with zero or more members in them.
No, it is not right. We can say that the empty set contains no members. It may be trivial, but not false.
Why would it imply anything? It implies the lack of members, that is all.
That is a syntactically correct sentence, but it refers to no actual tigers. One should not confuse “syntactically” correct linguistic constructs with sentences that actually say something about the real world or a mental abstraction.
Not at all. The only thing we can say about the empty set, that it contains no members. That is not useless at all.
It simply does not follow, actually the opposite does.
Remember, we do not need to assume that a hypothetical “world” could be actualized. Maybe it can, maybe it cannot. The only requirement is that it should not rely on a logical contradiciton. That is all, and the empty world fulfills that criterion. Since the empty world contains no members, it does not contain any hypothetical beings either.
The empty world is something but what is contains is nothing. A bag with no marbles basicly. If you doubt that this is possible can you give your argument?
Adam
So in this philosophy could that necessary existence be nature? Or energy? Or something completely non-intelligent?Me: Let’s look at the logical possibilities:
1 is obviously false, so really the argument is between 2 and 3. 3 is really going out on a limb, making a dogmatic, absolute statement. Like saying “No proposition is necessary true.” 3 must be self-contradictory.
- All existence is necessary.
- Some existence is necessary.
- No existence is necessary.
So that leaves us with 2.
And isn’t it Plantinga’s argument that as soon as we entertain that it is possible for a necessary being to exist, it must be exist?
kordially,
karl
nothing that exists necessarily can be physical, because not every possible world contains physical objects.So in this philosophy could that necessary existence be nature? Or energy? Or something completely non-intelligent?
~Steve~
john doran said:1) what is the “world” that is containing nothing?
- there is no such thing as an empty world because there are necessary beings, like sets and propositions and numbers and…
A) but it can’t lack any necessary beings: that’s what it means to be necessary - existing in every possible world. thus, a world without them is impossible.Yes, and the empty world has none of these. The empty world itself is a set, a number. Empty is defined as zero.
Clarify why these things are necessary and why a set cannot act as a world. Is the analogy between them illconceived? If so, why? 0 is defined as the empty set. That is what I meant in my last post.A) but it can’t lack any necessary beings: that’s what it means to be necessary - existing in every possible world. thus, a world without them is impossible.
B) a world isn’t a set - it’s a world. a set is a set.
well, for example, the proposition “1+1=2” is necessarily true, which means that there is no world in which it fails to obtain. but for it to be true requires that there be numbers and numerical relations that make it true. which means that there are at least two things that exist necessarily: numbers and propositions.Clarify why these things are necessary and why a set cannot act as a world. Is the analogy between them illconceived? If so, why? 0 is defined as the empty set. That is what I meant in my last post.
OK I like your last paragraph but I think the first is flawed. Logic is not necessary actually. It is only necessary in our world and our idea of other worlds but there are worlds called impossible worlds. I know the name implies they don’t exist but actually mathematicians and logicians hold they do. This is a pretty useful concept in explaining worlds where certain laws of logic do not hold or where contadictions are true or both. So math does not necessarily hold in every world. There are articles on the interenet if you wish. **Impossible worlds **is the key word. This may or may not be applicable to the empty world, if there is such a thing. Maybe this world exists but the laws of logic do not hold there. If Hitetlen is still going to run with his set theory. Then this would be true since everything is true of the empty world, including contadictions. If I made some fatal flaw in logic please point it out.well, for example, the proposition “1+1=2” is necessarily true, which means that there is no world in which it fails to obtain. but for it to be true requires that there be numbers and numerical relations that make it true. which means that there are at least two things that exist necessarily: numbers and propositions.
if you like set theory, then the fact that there are numbers in every world means that there are sets in every world.
i’m not sure how to be clearer about the difference between sets and worlds. i mean, a set can’t be a person, either. or a cup of tea. they’re just not the same thing. i suppose, on the more technical side, you might demonstrate that a set and a possible world have different properties, and thus fail the basic test of identity. but that hardly seems necessary.
logic and math are necessarily true. it literally makes no sense to suggest that there is some possible world where, for example, A&~A. i mean, one of the basic features of modal logic is that “possibility” is tied to broadly ***logical ***possibility.OK I like your last paragraph but I think the first is flawed. Logic is not necessary actually. It is only necessary in our world and our idea of other worlds but there are worlds called impossible worlds. I know the name implies they don’t exist but actually mathematicians and logicians hold they do. This is a pretty useful concept in explaining worlds where certain laws of logic do not hold or where contadictions are true or both. So math does not necessarily hold in every world. There are articles on the interenet if you wish. **Impossible worlds **is the key word. This may or may not be applicable to the empty world, if there is such a thing. Maybe this world exists but the laws of logic do not hold there. If Hitetlen is still going to run with his set theory. Then this would be true since everything is true of the empty world, including contadictions. If I made some fatal flaw in logic please point it out.
Adam
Kripke, Saul. 1965. Semantical analysis of modal logic, II: non-normal modal propositional calculi. In J.W. Addison, L. Henkin, and A. Tarski, eds., The Theory of Models. Amsterdam: North Holland.logic and math are necessarily true. it literally makes no sense to suggest that there is some possible world where, for example, A&~A. i mean, one of the basic features of modal logic is that “possibility” is tied to broadly ***logical ***possibility.
i’m not sure what thinkers you have in mind when you say that there are people who maintain these views, but i’d be interested to read what they say.
and i would say that they’re wrong, but i can’t say any more than that until i have reasoning with which to find fault.
those are just varieties of paraconsistent logics, which involve manipulation of operators, functions, and variables - they are not necessarily ontologically relevant. that is to say, you’d need a further philosophical theory to relate the logic to an ontology. and that’s the part that i would say cannot be done, simply because it’s absurd (i.e. the project cannot coherently even be described).Kripke, Saul. 1965. Semantical analysis of modal logic, II: non-normal modal propositional calculi. In J.W. Addison, L. Henkin, and A. Tarski, eds., The Theory of Models. Amsterdam: North Holland.
Priest, Graham (ed.). 1997. Notre Dame Journal of Formal Logic 38, no. 4. (Special issue on impossible worlds.) Table of contents
Priest, Graham. 2001. An Introduction to Non-Classical Logic. Cambridge: Cambridge University Press.
Kripke is the foremost authority on logic and Priest is rather intelligent I’ve heard but I’ve never read him.
Adam