P
Pai_Nosso
Guest
What is the origin of pain and suffering.
A popular question among agnostics is “If there is a God why does he allow so much pain and suffering” How is one child born healthy and another born with a disability. I came to rest on a theory that it is the work of the devil which brings pain and suffering into our lives.
A few years later I decided to read the bible and came across this passage…
"As he went along, he saw a man blind from birth. His disciples asked him, “Rabbi, who sinned, this man or his parents, that he was born blind?” “Neither this man nor his parents sinned,” said Jesus, “but this happened so that the works of God might be displayed in him.” John 9:1-3 (NIV)
So my theory was wrong but what exactly did Jesus mean by “so that the works of God might be displayed in him” It sounds like he is saying that God made this guy blind so that Jesus could come along and heal him. That sounds so cruel. What about the rest of the disabled people who will never get healed. And so I chose to accept that pain and suffering is a mystery to us.
Fast forward and I find this interpretation in the CEV.
“As Jesus walked along, he saw a man who had been blind since birth. Jesus’ disciples asked, “Teacher, why was this man born blind? Was it because he or his parents sinned?” “No, it wasn’t!” Jesus answered. "But because of his blindness, you will see God work a miracle for him.” John 9:1-3 (CEV)
I learnt that translating this from Greek is tricky and that this is the correct translation. So it seems that I’m back where I was. Pain and suffering is the result if Satan.
Give me your thoughts, what is the origin of pain and suffering.
A popular question among agnostics is “If there is a God why does he allow so much pain and suffering” How is one child born healthy and another born with a disability. I came to rest on a theory that it is the work of the devil which brings pain and suffering into our lives.
A few years later I decided to read the bible and came across this passage…
"As he went along, he saw a man blind from birth. His disciples asked him, “Rabbi, who sinned, this man or his parents, that he was born blind?” “Neither this man nor his parents sinned,” said Jesus, “but this happened so that the works of God might be displayed in him.” John 9:1-3 (NIV)
So my theory was wrong but what exactly did Jesus mean by “so that the works of God might be displayed in him” It sounds like he is saying that God made this guy blind so that Jesus could come along and heal him. That sounds so cruel. What about the rest of the disabled people who will never get healed. And so I chose to accept that pain and suffering is a mystery to us.
Fast forward and I find this interpretation in the CEV.
“As Jesus walked along, he saw a man who had been blind since birth. Jesus’ disciples asked, “Teacher, why was this man born blind? Was it because he or his parents sinned?” “No, it wasn’t!” Jesus answered. "But because of his blindness, you will see God work a miracle for him.” John 9:1-3 (CEV)
I learnt that translating this from Greek is tricky and that this is the correct translation. So it seems that I’m back where I was. Pain and suffering is the result if Satan.
Give me your thoughts, what is the origin of pain and suffering.
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