J
joe370
Guest
The bound codified bible, as we know it today, was not available to each and every 1st, 2nd, 3rd, 4th century Christian, geographically separated from one another, as it is today.
How could scripture alone have been the Christians all sufficient sole rule of faith and final authority for edification, resolving doctrinal differences, etc etc?
How could scripture alone have been the Christians all sufficient sole rule of faith and final authority for edification, resolving doctrinal differences, etc etc?