You are saying that the physical universe must have had a non-physical (and actually, I’m not sure what you mean by that) cause, and that cause must have been God.
by non-physical i simply mean something that is not physical, i.e. doesnt act within the confines of physical laws, it lacks physical substance. i prefer the metaphysical definition of ‘supernatural’ but as i spend a lot of time talking to physicists, engineers and chemists, they cant quite wrap their head around it without reference to ghosts et al. so i simply say ‘non-physical’. it makes it easier.
So vaccuum fluctuations, quantum effects and anything else which we can measure are “physical”, and all these things must have had a “non-physical” cause.
‘measurement’ has little to do with it, rather physical things are those which act in accord with or whose behavior is in any manner predictable from those physical laws. measurement is too imprecise a definition.
further, vacuum fluctualtions and other QM theory are just that, theory. there are alot of equally valid QM interpretations
that aside, those things are physical in nature, and therefore require a cause.
But why is it so unreasonable to ask what caused the non-physical cause? You’re just defining the problem out of existence. Fair enough, if you find that a satisfying answer - I don’t; I stand with MegaTheron in saying that this is a magic explanation that actually explains nothing.
it is unreasonable to ask that because it is the presupposition, with no evidence or logical argumentation, that the non-physical must be subject to the same laws as the physical.
its like saying that someone in a foreign country is subject to your laws. why should they be?
we know causality applies to physical objects, there is nothing that says it should apply to the non-physical, so that is a baseless assumption.
im sure that you dont like baseless assumption either.
Why use the label “God” for this thing-which-caused-the-Universe? Why not just call it “the cause of the Universe”?
Calling it “God” calls up a whole load of other cultural baggage which has accreted to that word over the millennia.
im entirely happy to use the term ‘non-physical’. but as G-d is the only non-physical object of sufficient power to cause creation that we have any knowledge of, than. its really a half a dozen of one, 6 of another situation.
that said, ‘non-physical’ is fine too. im not married to any particular vernacular.
If this non-physical cause is so utterly unlike anything which exists in the physical universe (and surely this must be the case, as it is not part of the physical universe), then how can anything be known about it at all? How could it possibly have desires, goals or emotions that are anything like those of a human being, much less concern itself with what people’s burnt offerings smell like, or whether people gather up sticks on the sabbath?
let me say this covers a larger range of subject matter than MoM intended in the OP, im happy to discuss it, but a proper treatment of theology takes reams and centuries.
that said i think the real argument is not about the existence of
G-d, but rather who is G-d?
Most religious folk seem pretty convinced that the intelligent, self-aware universe-creating agency which they call “God” has a lot in common with human beings
.
thats because of thousands of years of experience with G-d. most people arent metaphysicians, or cosmlologists. but if you dont even believe in the existence of G-d, you cant really be expectede to understand why they think in those terms, but as i assure you that we are no more intelligent or educated than the norm of them, then we must assume that they have sufficient reason to do so.
Perhaps this is OT, but you did say that most “excuses” for atheism could be easily dismissed, so I think you opened out the field there…
sure, just give me a specific objection and i can give you the refutation. that or look it up, if you have something really original.
Incidently, I thought things like the Casimir effect demonstrated that force and energy can arise directly out of vacuum fluctuations. But I’m not an expert in these things - I’m willing to be corrected.
the most basic problem is the idea of ‘vacuum’ an area with dimension, lacking objects, to some thresh hold with in it.
where does this vacuum come from, it still needs a cause as something with physical properties, such as dimension.
a vacuum is not nothing, it is something. VP fails before it even gets started from a metaphysical view.
And on a last note: The ontological argument can be used to prove that the perfect ice cream sundae must exist somewhere. I hope someone has it in a freezer…
Aquinas, wasn’t enamored of the ontological argument either.
you may be confusing Thomistic thought for the ontological argument.