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SteveVH
Guest
I asked the question because you have made the claim that the scriptures are, we’ll use your term here, “innacurate”. So let me rephrase the question. How does one determine what is accurate and what is innacurate?You asked how I determined what had been “corrupted”, an idea to which I had never made any reference. I suggested emending “corruption” to “inaccuracy” because I did talk about the latter. If that is not what you meant, what does corruption have to do with this?
Not if the Holy Spirit is truly at work. We do not receive partially true revelation. The Holy Spirit was at work both in the inspiration of the scriptures themselves as well as in the determination of the canon.This simple dichotomy is not at all logically necessary. A message could be wholly inspired, partially inspired, or wholly uninspired.
Agreed, inspired texts require as their compliment an infallible interpreter and there is one authentic and infallible interpreter, the magesterium of the Catholic Church.Actually, interpretation of Sacred Scripture is a matter very crucially interdependent with the nature of Sacred Scripture.
No, I do not believe this. I believe Titus to be an inspired text because the Church said it was. Neither you nor I have any authority to say otherwise.To use very simplistic examples, an uninspired text interpreted in an inspired way is what you presumably believe to be the case in Titus 1:12-13;
I would agree.an inspired text interpreted in an uninspired fashion is what you presumably believe to be the case in sola scriptura anti-Catholic arguments;
Yes, exactly.an inspired text intepreted in an inspired fashion is what you presumably believe to be the case in the Magisterium’s views of what Scripture says.
I’m glad I’m Catholic.As for what Anglicans generally believe about Scripture, I have already mentioned that views vary. It is not as simple a matter as saying, “If X is an Anglican, then X’s view of Scripture will be exactly Y”.
