This is not the position of the Scriptures:
Ps. 14:1 The fool hath said in his heart, There is no God. They are corrupt, they have done abominable works, there is none that doeth good.
2 The Lord looked down from heaven upon the children of men, to see if there were any that did understand, and seek God.
Sound familiar? Notice that it is the whole human race and not just Jews or believers (“upon the children of men”). Sounds a lot like the argument and charge that Saint Paul is making in his letter to the Romans. Moreover, Saint Paul’s position was also made clear, basing himself no doubt in part on Wis 13:5, when to the Christian Romans he writes:
Rom 1:18 For the wrath of God is revealed from heaven against all ungodliness and unrighteousness of men, who hold the truth in unrighteousness;
19 Because that which may be known of God is manifest in them; for God hath shewed it unto them.
The Scriptures consistently argue that God can be know from and through His works or through Creation.
But what has that to do with Paul saying "“For although they knew God”?
This is ridiculous inocente. Saint Paul is not talking about Jews or Christians in Romans 1; he is talking to them. I am not surprised that in order to dismiss or excuse the most abominable perversions and vices it requires an equally perverted interpretation of the Scriptures.
Of course Paul is writing to his church. Doesn’t change one jot of he wrote though.
Are you seriously trying to blame God for sexual perversions? You scarcely need to appeal to God to see how these vices follow logically from forsaking God and the just order of Creation and justice itself or from forsaking conscience and reason. It hardly requires immediate divine intervention for an error to bear its logical fruits.
What, so when Paul says “God gave them over in the sinful desires of their hearts” and “God gave them over to shameful lusts” and “God gave them over to a depraved mind”, he really means “God did not give them over” and “God did not give them over” and “God did not give them over”?
Then do you reckon God had nothing to do with anything and Paul should instead have written “blind forces gave them over” or “simple logic gave them over”? Why didn’t he say that then instead of saying God gave them over?
You must have accidentally forgotten the last part of my post: Paul says these people, every gay and lesbian according to you, “have become filled with every kind of wickedness, evil, greed and depravity. They are full of envy, murder, strife, deceit and malice. They are gossips, slanderers, God-haters, insolent, arrogant and boastful; they invent ways of doing evil; they disobey their parents; they have no understanding, no fidelity, no love, no mercy.”
Notice, past tense, it’s already happened, according to you every gay and lesbian have become filled with every kind of wickedness, evil, greed and depravity. They are full of envy, murder, strife, deceit and malice. They are gossips, slanderers, God-haters, insolent, arrogant and boastful; they invent ways of doing evil; they disobey their parents; they have no understanding, no fidelity, no love, no mercy.
So how do you explain Paul saying that about the sixteen year old girl sitting next to you in Mass, or the middle aged business man sat in front of you?
How do you explain Paul not including child rapists, axe murderers, drug dealers, guys who walk into schools and randomly shoot everyone in sight? How come he doesn’t include anyone who is actually visibly and palpably evil, but only gays and lesbians, only the sixteen year old girl sitting next to you in Mass and the middle aged business man sat in front of you?