T
thedavidwilson
Guest
“For example, if people are being oppressed in Country X, and not allowed to practice Islam, and there is a Muslim state Country Y, then the Muslim STATE is allowed to go to war with the oppressor to free the people. So I think you have sort of skimmed my posts and assumed I said something that in fact I didn’t say, and then you’re trying to prove that thing wrong. But that was never my statement in the first place.”
So by your statement the US banning aspects of sharia law such as killing apostates, polygamy and wife beating (umder any cirumstance) would be the prevention of muslims to practice their religion. I would also might add that by me not paying a jizya tax to muslims also constitutes muslims being prevented from fully practicing thier faith.
Does this mean muslims are justified in attacking the US since we are inhibiting US muslims from fully practicing their faith?
"Oppressive rule of Islam? Honestly, my answer to this question will **** you off, I’m sure (well, if you’re American), because it’s based on American diplomatic history. "
Another Tu Quoque logical fallacy.
"If Spain was Muslim for 700 years and now it’s Catholic, can we say it was formerly Muslim and now under the oppressive rule of Catholicism? "
Is being oppressive defined as the government changing from one form to another? No. You statement is not logical. It was the fact that it was under MUSLIM rule is what made it oppressive.
"Don’t you realize that even the MUSLIMS are denied rights in many(all) so-called “islamic countries?” How can you expect Christians to be treated fairly when even the MUSLIMS are oppressed?
"
Christians are given LESS rights in muslim countries than muslims are given. This is expressed in islam and sharia law. That is the contradiction I am pointing out. If both non-muslims and muslims had equally reduced rights in muslims countries thent that would point to that particular regime. This is not the case. Muslims have MORE rights. That seems to point toward the fact that it is a muslim country.
“People converted to Islam. Get over it”
Hmmm…are you sure there were no wars involved with Spain becoming muslim? Or Lebenon? or Israel? Or Turkey? Or Iran? Or Iraq? Or Egypt? Or Lybia? Or Morraco? Or Sicily? All these folks converted to muslim on their own?
So by your statement the US banning aspects of sharia law such as killing apostates, polygamy and wife beating (umder any cirumstance) would be the prevention of muslims to practice their religion. I would also might add that by me not paying a jizya tax to muslims also constitutes muslims being prevented from fully practicing thier faith.
Does this mean muslims are justified in attacking the US since we are inhibiting US muslims from fully practicing their faith?
"Oppressive rule of Islam? Honestly, my answer to this question will **** you off, I’m sure (well, if you’re American), because it’s based on American diplomatic history. "
Another Tu Quoque logical fallacy.
"If Spain was Muslim for 700 years and now it’s Catholic, can we say it was formerly Muslim and now under the oppressive rule of Catholicism? "
Is being oppressive defined as the government changing from one form to another? No. You statement is not logical. It was the fact that it was under MUSLIM rule is what made it oppressive.
"Don’t you realize that even the MUSLIMS are denied rights in many(all) so-called “islamic countries?” How can you expect Christians to be treated fairly when even the MUSLIMS are oppressed?
"Christians are given LESS rights in muslim countries than muslims are given. This is expressed in islam and sharia law. That is the contradiction I am pointing out. If both non-muslims and muslims had equally reduced rights in muslims countries thent that would point to that particular regime. This is not the case. Muslims have MORE rights. That seems to point toward the fact that it is a muslim country.
“People converted to Islam. Get over it”
Hmmm…are you sure there were no wars involved with Spain becoming muslim? Or Lebenon? or Israel? Or Turkey? Or Iran? Or Iraq? Or Egypt? Or Lybia? Or Morraco? Or Sicily? All these folks converted to muslim on their own?
