Notworthy,
I do understand that Revelation was written in a different style than the Gospel of John, and I understand there is a lot of symbolism in Revelation, but you can’t tell me that everything in Revelation was symbolic.
It seems to me that to embrace an amillennial view of eschatos, leaves no other option but to also embrace the preterist postition, this in response to Rev. 20:10. John says here that Satan is cast into the bottomless pit… “where the beast and the false prophet are”. If the Catholic Church represents that “perfection” illustrated in the 1000 years, and at the end of that thousand years is when Satan will be loosed for a season, then cast into hell… then you are claiming that the Antichrist reign, and the tribulation period would have occured before the Catholic Church came into existence… But how can that be? According to you and others here… the Catholic Church was founded by the Apostles.
Also, according to Rev. 20:2,3 Satan will be bound for that “thousand years”. If the Catholic Church rule is represented by the Millennial reign, where is Satan now?
If Satan is bound according to Rev. 20:2,3 why would Paul give authority to the Corinthian church to “deliver such an one to Satan”? And how was Paul affected in the flesh by a “messenger of Satan” in 2 Cor. 12:7? And why would the catechism warn against involving yourself with Satanic activity CCC#2116?
John
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