**
The Problem of Early Philosophy**
First, let me clarify a thing that I don’t think the Catholics here have ever addressed (in their discussions with me). The thing is the Platonistic and Neoplatonistic views held by the ECFs. For the ancients “the essence of a thing is ultimately to be defined by the power by which it is possessed.” (Kilmartin, The Eucharist in the West p. 40) As such, if God imparted his grace to the elements of the Eucharist such that they drew the participants deeper into the unity of the body of Christ, then it would be appropriate to identify the elements of the Eucharist as the body and as the blood of a Christ b/c the unifying power/grace of the body/blood of Christ acted through the elements, or in other words, the power of a higher level of reality acted through the elements in the lower material level of reality. Another way that the ancients looked at it or expressed it was to understand that the prototype was mediated through the image/symbol. As such, the image/symbol could be said to make the thing that it symbolized, present** (in a certain way)** to the participant…and for that reason could be said to be the thing that it represented (ie the bread could be said to be the body). It should be stressed that the image (bread) was not seen to have changed in substance, but rather, a divine power, grace or spiritual power was understood to have been added the element (and this, in no way involved a real bodily presence). As such, the “real presence” involved would be a Platonistic Real Presence (PRP) and not a real bodily presence (RBP). The significance of the material realm was down played and the significance of the spiritual realm, realm of power, realm of divine grace was emphasized so that the reality of a thing was determined by what was going on in the higher spiritual/non-material plane. Please pardon this rather pitiful description of the Platonistic and Neoplatonistic views, but hopefully it is adequate for my purposes.
The relation of the Platonistic or Neoplatonistic view to the use of realistic language
Given the foregoing, every time you approach the work of an ECF you should take into account the possibility that the father possessed a Platonistic or Neoplatonistic view. If such was the case, then that ECF could very well utilize very realistic language to describe the Platonistic Real Presence (PRP)…which is something very different from a RBP. For example, these quotes from Ignatius are often provided by Catholics here as if they unquestionably demonstrate a belief by Ignatius in a RBP:
" They abstain from the Eucharist and from prayer, because they do not admit that the Eucharist is the flesh of our Savior Jesus Christ, the flesh which suffered for our sins and which the Father, in His graciousness, raised from the dead."
“Letter to the Smyrnaeans”, 6.
“… so that with undivided mind you may obey the bishop and the priests, and break one Bread which is the medicine of immortality and the antidote against death, enabling us to live forever in Jesus Christ.”
-“Letter to the Ephesians”, 20
“I have no taste for the food that perishes nor for the pleasures of this life. I want the Bread of God which is the Flesh of Christ, who was the seed of David; and for drink I desire His Blood which is love that cannot be destroyed.”
-“Letter to the Romans”, 7
Yes, Ignatius used very realistic language…So what? Figures of speech often use very realistic language…in fact, such usage often makes the figure more effective. A Platonistic Real Presence (PRP) would be described using very realistic language, but it is something very different than a RBP b/c no conversion in substance occurs. ** What you need to pair with the realistic language are statements declaring a conversion (in the substance) otherwise the realistic language does not necessitate a belief in the RBP.** WRT Ignatius, we do not have enough to know “how” he thought “the Eucharist is the flesh of our Savior Jesus Christ”. It might be that he was saying that the heterodox did not admit that the Eucharist was symbolically the flesh of Christ, b/c, after all, the heterodox did not believe that Christ came in the flesh. It might be that he was indicating that his community believed in a PRP which didn’t include a RBP. It might be that he was indicating that his community believed in a RBP (though I suspect that belief had not yet developed). The question is** “how was the Eucharist the flesh of Christ in Ignatius’ mind?” ** It seems that around here, the assumption is that there is only one possible meaning that could have existed for an ECF who used realistic language to say that the bread is the flesh/body of Christ…and that assumption is simply wrong. Realistic words do not establish a belief in a RBP.
WRT Ignatius, IMHO we do not have enough to be able to flesh out his philosophical viewpoint and so we can’t say with any certainty what he meant, yet it seems that Catholics around here automatically assume that his use of realistic language establishes his belief in a RBP. WRT Augustine, we have enough to know that he was Neoplatonic in his approach. As such, if you want to establish that Augustine believed in a RBP then you must be able to point to something more than his use of realistic language…you must be able to show that he taught that a change in substance occurred. By Augustine’s time, Ambrose in the west and the 4th century Antiochene school in the east had taught (clearly) that the Eucharist involved a conversion/change of substance and as such, the language of substantive change was not only available to him, but likely familiar to him. Nevertheless, Augustine never uses the language of substantive change.
(This is all I can get to at this time…so I’ll pick it up from here in my next “general” post…God bless you)