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ibneahmad
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Jesus did not start it; so why he should be present?I have just been wondering why you don’t believe in the Real Presence of Jesus Christ in the Blessed Sacrament.
Jesus did not start it; so why he should be present?I have just been wondering why you don’t believe in the Real Presence of Jesus Christ in the Blessed Sacrament.
You do not know that which you speak of.Jesus did not start it; so why he should be present?
no, I believe that it is only your assumption that Augustine is speaking about a transubstantiated presence. Remember Augustine is a neoplatonist and so before you can declare that the quoted phrase indicates a RBP, you must eliminate the possibility of a neoplatonistic interpretation (that does not involve a RBP)… We have also seen how Augustine used very realistic language for a figure of speech …not to mention the other possibilities that exist outside of a RBP. Here Augustine is really saying no more than what Jesus said at the Last Supper. You should know that I see no reason why any one should take Christ literally at the Last Supper, so why would I think Augustine should be understood literally when he does little more than repeat those words?Part 10…
Let’s first take a look at Sermon 227:
…That Bread which you see on the altar, being blessed by the Word of God, is the Body of Christ. That chalice, or rather, what is in that chalice, being blessed by the Word of God, is the Blood of Christ. Through that bread and wine, the Lord Christ gives to you His Body and Blood, which He poured out for us unto the forgiveness of sins"
THAT is the reality and the literal understanding of the bread and wine.
I note the realistic language, but we have observed again and again how realistic does not mean literalWhat follows (the “how”) is the figurative way of understanding the words of Augustine (again, consistency). But you may ask, “How do YOU know that he is speaking literally here? Doesn’t he ask “HOW” and then explains himself and totally contradicts the RBP of Christ in the Eucharist?” Yes, it may appear that way, doesn’t it? So how can I be so sure that this here is twofold and the latter (people being the Body of Christ) does not make the former (RBP of Christ) void? Examine the sermon itself and what I have quoted above. Notice the literal and realistic language, “That Bread which you see on the altar, being blessed by the Word of God, IS the Body of Christ. That chalice, or rather what is in that chalice, being blessed by the Word of God, IS the Blood of Christ.”
what is the key? That the bread is still bread and referred to as such? That the wine is still wine and referred to as such? The question is: how does Jesus give saving blood to us through wine that is still wine?That’s not even the only literal part and not even the BEST place to quote to show that Augustine is speaking literally here. What else shows a literal understanding? “…Though that BREAD and WINE, the Lord Christ gives to you HIS BODY and BLOOD, WHICH HE POURED OUT FOR US UNTO THE FORGIVENESS OF SINS.” That’s the KEY right there.
yes, that is right out of scripture…Christ poured out his blood at the cross (he poured wine at the last supper). Christ related the bread and wine to his own body and blood…it was a figure then and still was a figure for Augustine.He is relating the Body and Blood in that bread and wine to the SAME Body and Blood that was crucified for us on the cross; for he says “which HE POURDED OUT FOR US UNTO THE FORGIVENESS OF SINS.”
I can’t help but note that John the Baptist once said, “Look, the Lamb of God who takes away the sin of the world.” If I apply your “rule of consistency”, then I must conclude that, if Jesus wasn’t really a domestic farm animal, then he can’t have literally taken away the sin of the world. I trust you will understnd if I decline to follow your rule.So let’s shift our focus back to consistency. If you believe that Augustine’s “how” makes the first part symbolic, then you have to be consistent and believe that the Body and Blood of Christ did not literally save us from sin on the cross, but it was US as the members of Christ who were on the cross and died.
No, in my last two posts I explained why I think this claim of yours is simply wrong.Again, remember, if you are going to admit that the figurative language and interpretation of Augustine makes void the reality of the RBP of Christ in the Eucharist, then you have to be consistent and admit that Augustine denied a real Bodily Resurrection of Christ, a Bodily crucifixion of Christ, Christ’s body did not really sweat blood, but the Church did in a certain manner, etc.
And now Sermon 272. …
One thing is seen, another is to be understood. What you can see on the altar, you also saw last night; but what it was, what it meant, of what great reality it contained the sacrament, you had not yet heard. So what you can see, then, is bread and a cup; that’s what even your eyes tell you; but as for what your faith asks to be instructed about, the bread is the body of Christ, the cup the blood of Christ.
yes, he does…he talked about what was seen and what was understood…he did not talk about what was seen and what was present via a change of substance.Notice the very first line “One thing is seen, another is to be understood.” Right away, Augustine talks about two things.
right, the reality is achieved by faith or by understanding, (a good approach for neoplatonism) but not by any conversion of the substance of bread to a body’s substance. That latter idea is entirely absent.His explanation of “what is to be understood” is “BUT AS FOR WHAT YOUR FAITH ASKS YOU TO BE INSTRUCTED ABOUT, THE BREAD IS THE BODY OF CHRIST, THE CUP THE BLOOD OF CHRIST.” He has instructed them of the reality of the bread and wine being the Body and Blood of Christ and THAT is what is to be understood.
well, it should at least be mentioned …somewhere…in all of Augustine’s many, many words.He goes on to explain the “how” which in your opinion should explain and emphasize the RBP of Christ.
but he hasn’t told them HOW…and that is something that he thinks still needs to be explained at that stage in the sermon…so obviously, merely telling his audience that the bread is the body of Christ still leaves the HOW untouched. In other words, it doesn’t provide the HOW answer of “by a real bodily presence” with an, “…and, there is another HOW that I still need to tell you about.”I don’t see it that away at all. He has ALREADY told them the bread and cup is the Body and Blood of Christ.
agreed…he emphasized the unifying aspect of the sacrament (which was a spiritual reality) You seem to think that use of “reality” means that a RBP is under consideration…it doesn’t. It just doesn’t.Considering the historical context of Augustine, his “how” is to emphasize unity and is NOT meant to take away from the reality. Notice what he says, which further tells us that these things which are to be seen point to a realistic understanding, “…but what it was, what it meant, OF WHAT GREAT REALITY IT CONTAINED the sacrament…”
again, HOW are these things transformed? WRT the people, is it a spiritual transformation or a transubstantial transformation? I still wait for anything from you (or Harmless, if I read him incorrectly) to show that the transformation is transubstantial wrt the bread (or blood)…and not just a spirtual transformationPart 11…
What about Sermon 229a? You quoted a Catholic author and made it appear as though he did not believe that Augustine believed in the RBP of Christ in the Eucharist. That is not the case. I have read what he said in context and the author is saying exactly what I am saying. Augustine had a twofold understanding of the sacrament. One was figurative and one was literal. The author does not deny that Augustine believed in a RBP. If you continue reading from that same page, the author goes on to say "The transformation of bread and wine into the Body and Blood of Christ did not preoccupy Augustine the way it would the medieval tradition. For Augustine, TRANSFORMED BREAD AND WINE was but ONE-HALF OF THE MYSTERY: the other half, transformed people, was what especially concerned him…
we agree that there is an emphasis on unity in those sermons, but I will stick with Wills, Kilmartin and van der Meer in declaring that there is no evidence of a RBP in any of those sermons.The author seems to agree with me that Augustine, in those sermons, was not concerned much with the RBP of Christ (although the belief is still stated on every single one of those sermons) but the emphasis was more on unity (and he notes the reasons for this which is due to the divisions between the Catholics and the Donatists).
But is this all we have from Augustine that shows a belief in a RBP of Christ? Absolutely not. We can point to Sermons and passages such as:
Your use of the these Sermons is exactly why I bothered (some pages back) to explain (my limited understanding of) the Platonistic/neoplatonistic approach…You might be forgetting the ancient view point that the symbol/figure of a thing somehow shares in the power of the thing that it symbolizes. As such, in the neoplatonist view, if God injects the saving grace/ the unifying grace (“earned” by the body of Christ on the cross) into the bread, then by taking that bread (which is a figure of that body) the participant shares in the grace of the body. Further, (from a neoplatonistic outlook), b/c the reality of a thing is best defined by the power it possesses, one could declare that by giving the (empowered) bread and wine, “the Lord Christ gives to you HIS BODY and BLOOD, WHICH HE POURED OUT FOR US UNTO THE FORGIVENESS OF SINS”. No RBP is contemplated. The figurative understanding describes a spiritual reality and the spiritual reality is “more real” than a material reality. You have not produced anything that requires a change in the substance of the bread…and that is something you won’t find in Augustine. The bread can be called the body of Christ (meaning incarnated body) b/c it (after consecration and belief) possesses (some of?]) the saving and unifying grace possessed by the incarnated body. The bread can be called the body of Christ (meaning the Church) b/c it (after consecration and belief) possesses (some of?]) the saving and unifying grace possessed by the Church. In neither case is it that the bread’s substance is replaced by the substance of the incarnated body or the substance of the Church.Sermon 234…And Sermon 235:…
obviously, I wasn’t clear enough…like you I see that Augustine focused primarily on the unity achieved by the Eucharist and so when that focus is in play, it is the Church that is on the altar. On the other hand, if it is the saving grace imparted by the Eucharist that Augustine has in mind, then it is the incarnated body of Christ that is on the altar. Neither, is on the altar by way of a substantiated presence. Both are on the altar through the bread that symbolizes those things…What is actually on the altar is bread and wine and grace and nothing else.Part 12:
“How this ‘And he was carried in his own hands’] should be understood literally of David, we cannot discover; but we can discover how it is meant of Christ. **FOR CHRIST **WAS CARRIED IN HIS OWN HANDS, WHEN, REFERRING TO HIS OWN BODY, HE SAID: ‘THIS IS MY BODY.’ FOR HE CARRIED THAT BODY IN HIS HANDS.” (Psalms 33:1:10)
We haven’t gone too much into this one (or at all) but in my opinion, this one is the most literal and most realistic of all and kills the argument that “Augustine believed the bread and wine to be the Church on the altar and nothing else.”
Here, we see nothing about the Church being carried in Christ’s hands. He literally says “CHRIST was carried in His own hands, when referring to HIS BODY, He said: ‘This is my body.’ FOR HE CARRIED THAT BODY IN HIS HANDS.”
yes, but it is qualified by a recognition that he carried himself in a “certain way”…a way different from actually carrying his real body…Christ literally carried the bread which signified his body…that is the certain way. See my earlier post #156Notice, he says CHRIST was carried in His own hands (not the Church), when He said “THIS IS MY BODY”.
- But who is it that blesses the Lord at all times, except the humble in heart. For very humility taught our Lord in His Own Body and Blood: because when He commends His Own Body and Blood, He commends His Humility, in that which is written in this history, in that seeming madness of David, which we have passed by…
yes, Christ humbled himself in going to the cross.Notice the language there. Notice how Augustine uses the word “humility” to describe Jesus giving us His Body and Blood for us.
no, Christ humbling himself by giving his life on the cross is something that we recall every time that we participate in the Lord’s supper (every time that we look at the bread)…it is part of the “sweet and profitable memory of the fact that His flesh was wounded and crucified for us”.If Augustine believed that Christ SYMBOLICALLY gave us His Body and Blood, then the humility would cease.
…For some spiritual person in the Body of Christ, or even our Lord Jesus Christ Himself according to the flesh, the Head exhorting His Own Members, says; what? Approach unto Him, and be ye lightened. Or rather some spiritual Christian invites us to approach to our Lord Jesus Christ Himself. But let us approach to Him and be lightened; not as the Jews approached to Him, that they might be darkened; for they approached to Him that they might crucify Him: let us approach to Him that we may receive His Body and Blood. They by Him crucified were darkened; we by eating and drinking The Crucified are lightened. (paragraph 9)
this is just over-reaching IMHO. If we are to play this game then you should note that when the Jews approached Christ they saw him with their eyes and grabbed his arms etc. (his real body and not some body allegedly present by way of transubstantiation) and so, if there is a perfect one-to-one parallel that you want to use, then you would need a visible body of Christ at your Eucharist so that we can see and touch the wounds. If you can’t do that, then please note that there are quite a few differences that you are ignoring and any conclusion made with that sort of picking and choosing is questionable at bestThis deserves a little bit of a commentary. Notice the comparison and connection being made by Augustine regarding the Jews approaching Christ to crucify Him (literally, not symbolically) and regarding us who approach Christ today to receive His Body and Blood (since the former was literal, there is no reason to believe that the latter is symbolic).
sure there is, b/c I have now given you a number of examples from Augustine describing the eating as a figurative thing. For Augustine is was:He doesn’t stop there. He brings it back to the Jews and says “They by Him crucified were darkened…” the language there is literal since everyone would agree that Augustine believed that Christ was LITERALLY crucified and not symbolically. He continues and says “WE by EATING AND DRINKING THE CRUCIFIED are lightened.” They crucified His Body and Blood in a literal fashion and were darkened, we EAT THAT CRUCIFIED BODY AND BLOOD in a literal fashion and are lightened. That basically sums up what Augustine is saying here. If we are going to admit the first one is literal, there is no reason to believe that Augustine is moving from literal to a symbolic language when talking about eating the Crucified.
well, I have already dealt with this at posts #156 and #196 on this thread. I’ll repeat #196 here to make your life just that much easier:Part 13:
The last one from this Psalm is from paragraph 24:
24. The death of sinners is the worst Psalm 33:21. Attend, Brethren, for the sake of those things which I said. Truly Great is the Lord, and His Mercy, truly Great is He who gave to us to eat His Body, wherein He suffered such great things, and His Blood to drink.
Moving on to other passages by Augustine…
“Was not Christ **IMMOLATED **only once in His very Person? In the Sacrament, nevertheless, He is **IMMOLATED **for the people not only on every Easter Solemnity but on every day; and a man would not be lying if, when asked, he were to reply that Christ is being IMMOLATED.” (Letters 98:9)
Notice at first he says “WAS (past tense) not Christ IMMOLATED only once in His very person?” He is obviously speaking about the Crucifixion here. He continues now to the Sacrament of the Eucharist and says “He IS (present tense) IMMOLATED for the people not only on every Easter Solemnity but on every day; and a man would not be lying if, when asked, he were to reply that CHRIST IS (present tense) BEING IMMOLATED.” This is clearly not a language of symbolism. He makes the connection between Christ’s Immolation on the cross with that of the Altar in the Eucharist.
Also, reading the context of paragraph 9 helps one to see that Augustine believed in a Real Presence of Christ. We can go into that as well if you’d like.
of course it wasn’t to ignore the “reality of the sacrifices” (as you mean it)…there is no need to ignore a thing when one doesn’t believe that the thing exists.We can also take a look at Sermons 71 and 131 and see how Augustine interpreted John 6. We can look at the passages from Augustine that shows him believing the Eucharist is a sacrifice on the altar. This also has a double meaning. So you can quote passages that shows what Augustine means by sacrifice, but that was never Augustine’s intent to ignore the reality of the sacrifices on the altar.
tis odd that you think OCD III wasn’t dealing with the Eucharist. It seems that elsewhere, if Augustine mentions eating Christ’s flesh, then you claim he is talking about the Eucharist. It seems that elsewhere, if Augustine quotes John 6, then you claim he is talking about the Eucharist. Yet in OCD III, when he quotes that bit from John 6 where Christ requires us to eat his flesh and explains what that requirement means…then, oddly, Augustine isn’t talking about the Eucharist…I can’t help but think that your inconsistency is b/c, the figurative meaning that Augustine provided doesn’t support a RBP. All that you can do with OCD III is the “both/and approach”…which, from over here simply looks like you are saying that “I agree with the figurative explanation that Augustine expressly gave and I agree with the literal explanation that I will attribute to Augustine by inference”…and, from over here it doesn’t look like a very good inference.Again, I took your advice and saw these passages being interpreted by the people at the time and not by the Catholic Church of today nor by the Protestant Church of today. THEY saw John 6 referring to the Eucharist (as many, many, many other Fathers did) and they would not ignore every single passage by Augustine interpreting John 6 as a Eucharistic chapter because of a little line in OCD III that is not even dealing with the Eucharist but dealing with interpretation of Scripture.
It was indeed meant to void the literal interpretation. It was indeed meant to supply the correct interpretation…and it is entirely silent as to the possibility of any other type of interpretationThe way he interpreted it was not meant to make void the other interpretations and it certainly was not meant to be the official interpretation of Augustine on John 6.
agreed, he doesn’t assert a RBP in any other passage so there is no need have his other writings “answer to OCD III”. A dissonance only exists if one wrongly assumes that Augustine’s use of realistic language means that he believed in a RBP.He did not intend to make every other interpretation and commentary on John 6 that he wrote concerning the Eucharist to answer to OCD III.
agreed…but it doesn’t affirm the Catholic Eucharistic theology, and the way the figurative meaning is stated doesn’t leave a lot a room for another (RBP) meaning.Also, OCD III does not contradict the Eucharistic theology of Augustine, it only affirms it.
IMHO it is a strained harmonization…Although he wasn’t talking about the Eucharist in OCD III, we can still harmonize the two with no contradiction to the belief of the Real Presence by Augustine.
well, I’ll try to explain it again.Part 14…
As you very well know, in the Psalm, Augustine goes on to quote John 6 right after talking about “SALVATION” and “EATING THAT FLESH FOR SALVATION” and “NO ONE EATS THAT FLESH UNLESS HE HAS FIRST WORSHIPPED”. Compare that with On Sin and Merit 1:34 where Augustine is talking about the Eucharist being a necessity for salvation and what does he quote to prove that? John 6. I don’t see how anyone can read that exposition on the Psalm by Augustine and come to a conclusion that Augustine is not talking about the Eucharist JUST because the word Eucharist is not there.
yes, it is a Protestant approach…it is an approach that gives one the freedom to consider the possibilty that Augustine may differ significantly from the Catholic Church of today wrt Christ’s presence at the Eucharist. IMHO, an approach with that freedom has a greater likelihood of finding truth than one that lacks that freedomThis is a Protestant mindset…
it is an approach that allows Augustine to define for himself what constitutes eating Christ’s flesh…and is something a modern Protestant may miss because he/she could be interpreting Augustine using their modern interpretation of John 6.
it is an approach that looks at all of Augustine’s words and not just snippetsBut when we look at Augustine’s writings AS A WHOLE, …
it is an approach that takes into account that the ECFs had various philosophical views that colored their understandings…the interperations of other Fathers on John 6,
and it is an approach that notices the variety of views that existed among the ECFs wrt the Eucharist and does not try to force them into a artificial consensus.… the belief of the people at the time of the RBP of Christ in the Eucharist,…
tis somewhat odd that you mention Theodoret, for he is one of the ECFs that Kilmartin analyzes in The Eucharist in the West, precisely b/c Theodoret is one of the ECFs that denied a real conversion in the elements (I have already typed too much so I’ll let you look at that yourself…it starts about page 35).… Because in their days (and also in the Catholic Church), they believed that John 6 was about the Eucharist, they believed in the RBP of Christ and they adored the Eucharist as being Jesus Himself as Theodoret said in Dialogue 2:
Fulfillment does not equate into eradication. If that is the case,then why would the church even bother adding the OT to the Bible?Yes ,and have you heard of the N.T fulfilling AND doing away with old ?
I apologize if you have misunderstood my stance on the Eucharist. I am a Catholic and believe that the Eucharist is Jesus (Body, Blood, Soul and Divinity) and am a believer in Transubstantiation. When I use terms such as RBP, my understanding is that is no longer bread or wine but it IS Jesus. I don’t understand how that contradicts Church teachings.Lyrical, Radical has baited you into a discussion about “Real Bodily Presence” when that is not what the Church teaches about the sacrament. He has built a strawman argument and you have unknowingly fallen for it.
The Church teaches that Jesus’ Presence in the Eucharist is Real and Substantial. Substantial does not equate to “Bodily Presence” as you would like to understand it. Nor is His Real Presence and the doctrine of Transubstatiation mutually exclusive. His Presence is substantial, it is not, nor has the Church ever taught, that the accidents are parts of Jesus’ body.
The bread and the wine are His glorified body and blood that He makes present through a miracle through the instrument of the priest and the words of consecration.
Secondly, Radical, you, like most protestants, ignore the second part of John 6. Yes, to believe is to eat. But as Jesus demonstrated, to eat is to believe. We must eat His flesh and drink His blood or we do not have life in us. And His flesh and blood are given by Him to us under the appearances of bread and wine. Or as I said earlier in my post, you must believe that Jesus, in His last hours, was given over to deceptive language and useless metaphors. Therefore any idolatry that come from His words in John 6 & the Last Supper discourses, the blame must be laid at His feet. There is nothing in the context of either that would indicate that Jesus meant anything other than what He said. And there nothing in the context that shows that if what He said was to be taken as metaphorical, He gave no underlying meaning. IOW, “is” as used by Jesus must be inferred as being in the natural, literal sense; “This (bread) IS my body, given up for you”…“this IS the cup of my blood…”
The sacrament IS a sign-a figure-but is is also THAT which it signifies. The Eucharist is the sign that commemorates Jesus’ death and resurrection, his separated body and blood pointing to that death.
And it IS Jesus, substantially present, whole and entire, under both elements.
The figure and the reality which it signifies are one and the same. You, like most protestants, in your effort to undo the necessity of the Church you attack the sacraments. You attack the sacraments by creating false dichotomies and/or insist that corresponding teachings-like “faith-works” or “believing-eating”-are mutually exclusive. “Either-ors” instead of “both-ands”.
You’ll find that Augustine understood and taught the Real Presence in all of his writings, and that the accidents underwent a change in substance at the consecration; just as his teacher Ambrose taught him. That his use of the words “signs” or “figures” did not reduce them to mere symbols. That the bread and wine after the words of consecration really was Christ, whole and entire.
Your difficiency is that you don’t understand what a sacrament is. You don’t know how the Church defines a sacrament. So instead you have built a strawman and are beating “lyrical” over the head with it.
Augustine didn’t believe nor taught a RBP in the Eucharist, neither does the Church. What you, and so many other protestants have done, in an inane attempt to “claim” Augustine as the “proto-portestant” is rip his words out of context.
You’re just another protestant using confusing terminology to ridicule, to puff yourself up by shaming Catholics. You think that by shaming them in ignorance you can in turn tell them what the Bible “really says”. It’s intellectually dishonest and disengenuous.
Sorry, I must not have been clear. What you and I understand about the Real Presence and Transubstantiation is not what Radical is saying we mean by it. When he uses RBP he’s insisting that we mean a carnal body. You both are using the same term but with different meanings. And he’s arguing from his definition and insisting that is what we believe.I apologize if you have misunderstood my stance on the Eucharist. I am a Catholic and believe that the Eucharist is Jesus (Body, Blood, Soul and Divinity) and am a believer in Transubstantiation. When I use terms such as RBP, my understanding is that is no longer bread or wine but it IS Jesus. I don’t understand how that contradicts Church teachings.![]()
No worries at all.Sorry, I must not have been clear. What you and I understand about the Real Presence and Transubstantiation is not what Radical is saying we mean by it. When he uses RBP he’s insisting that we mean a carnal body. You both are using the same term but with different meanings. And he’s arguing from his definition and insisting that is what we believe.
I honestly do not know why you would waste time discussing the RP with someone like Radical? People who reject the RP are no different than people who advocate Faith Alone and the Bible-Only novelties. They will turn blue in the face and never grasp or even consider anything you tell them.No worries at all.
In an earlier post, I told Radical that the Church does not believe that we are literally eating the body parts of Jesus. We don’t believe that one church has Jesus’ ribs while another Church has His legs. It is all sacramental, not literally flesh eating as if I were to chop off a piece of Christ and eat Him like a cannibal. I had hoped that would have cleared up my stance on the matter before arguing what Augustine believed. This is the issue at hand, I think. When Augustine (when speaking about John 6) tells us that we are not to literally eat the flesh of Christ and drink His Blood, He is not denying a RP in the Eucharist. He is telling us that we are not to understand this in a literal way where we are to go eat the body parts of Christ in a cannibalistic way.
I guess Radical needs to understand the Church’s stance on the Eucharist before arguing against it or arguing that Augustine didn’t believe in a RP (the way the Church understands it). Perhaps the issue is terminology and understanding eachother’s doctrines.![]()
.Ok .My point was that first you have the world around us ,even it’s activities (eating ,planting,running,etc) that are used figuratively ,metaphorically ,symbolically to show something in the spirit realm.I say the “bread” is “spiritual” in the sense that it has a significance pertaining to the supernatural realm. To say that anything “spiritual” is “symbolic” or “figurative” would be to deny the reality of God’s activity in the world–it would be all up to our own imaginations
Understand ,just that for bread to be now it must be figurative,hence the debate that the eating is figurative.And this “bread” can be “for now” and “for heaven” at the same time.
Understand.We believe justification is a one time event ,like you are born .The walking it out ,born for what ,we call sanctification .We do not walk thinking we may be unborn depending on our action or lack of it ,The only thing that makes you unborn is if you give your new life back ,so to speak .So we walk by faith knowing we are justified.We do works because we are justified.That is the primary difference between us this definition of justification , the when and how of it. From your point of view , I would see why you need the church ,the sacraments, the priests, a magisterium, not for your equipping, as we do ,but for your very spiritual life. If we have negative motive for protestantism (rebelliousness,pride etc ) ,yours would be lording over ,control. Another words doctrine may show a conflict of interest (eg. -early Christians confessed to one another being the church -Catholicism says you need the church , a priest , because of their dogma that developed over time -not necessarily strengthening the believer ,cause he always had a way to confess, but stengthening the need for the church ,the Roman Church. The only good thing ,it separated us from true heretics at the time .The bad is protestantism had to evolve, and we are still separated today , but still unified in Christ .It was an artificial way towards unity that was finally shed. … .When we try to save someone , it is by the Word, as an early CF recommended .When you try to save someone, it is to a church /sacraments etc .Yours is more about a way to the Savior .Ours is more the Savior himself .Having said that ,we both struggle to keep it that simple.Catholics view justification as a process, not a one-time event. So the “bread” is of divine assistance “from now (earth) on into the future (heaven)”
O.K. ,I think we have been trying to interpret primarily by what he wrote fully, even as you suggested ,Other things are improtant yes .He was not Zwinglian ,but he was not not a 20Th century Catholic either .Trebor135;8296426 [QUOTE said:]I was simply proposing a plausible interpretation consistent with who St. Augustine was: a bishop in a fully sacramental (visible) church. Not a Zwinglian.
I thought you were tyring to imply that when someone says the eating is a spiritual thing (symbolic) that perhaps it is spiritual , not symbolic, cause it is to be done not in the flesh, that is, unworthily .So to eat worthily one must be in the spirit .I said yes to the worthily ,being in the spirit(secondarily), but the primary eating is not "in the spirit, but “by the spirit”. That is our spiritual entity eats,not our teeth and belly.I misspoke: what I meant was that the verse didn’t seem to shed light on our discussion.
Yes ,some have argued that .But others have argued against it .I thought Christians were to have what we call a Judeo -Christian view ,not a worldly view(Greek). Was it a “Mars Hill” tactic ,where you become all things to all men, so that some might be saved (where you don’t compromise) ? Maybe .I thought his Mars Hill tactic did not work .Or was it like Peter, that tried that but backfired because of his compromise with the Gentile /Jew struggle , that Paul had to correct ?But that doesn’t exclude a “real bodily presence” in his worldview–it just means he saw communion as having multiple layers of meaning: a “both/and” mentality rather than an “either/or” one.
Still does not mean it was not figurative.It is a complicated simplicity just figuratively speaking .But literally eating Him poses even more hurdles .It is like when Scripture says call/cry out to the Lord for salvation .Does that mean you have to shed tears , or verbally shout out etc. ? See how we can complicate things ? The only time Jesus complicated things , it was on purpose , to separate the sheep from the goats. .Again, the sheep gave no indication that they had to eat anything, but the Words of Jesus(Peter said ,“You have the words of eternal life” ) (Augustine ,Clement). It was the goats that thought they had to literally eat, in the John 6 discourse…AS far as Salvation ,Jeus said Many things to that end literally and figuratively,NOT just eating Him .All arguments against RP usually are best based on other scripture.But he never emphasizes the vital nature of seeds and stones to salvation like he does the necessity of eating his body and drinking his blood in the form of bread and wine.
NO. I said spirit is spirit and he uses things and even daily activity to show spiritual truths (therefore, earthly things are metaphorical ,figurative ,symbolic ).And aren’t you here conceding the whole argument–that Christ’s use of “spirit” didn’t, and couldn’t, mean “symbol”?]
I must beg to differ.
Well, acting like every Christian that had ever lived before Luther–that’s 1500 years of history to account for–got it totally wrong isn’t really very humble.
If you do away with the old testament in cannon ,then how else would you know it has been fulfilled ? Do you still offer blood animals and meet on the Sabbath ? If you don’t do them any more ,it is" eradicate" ,irrelevant of what you do now in it’s place. Paul was not afraid to use BOTH terms ,fulfill and do away with -eradicate. We move on to the next thing ,in apprehending Him.Fulfillment does not equate into eradication. If that is the case,then why would the church even bother adding the OT to the Bible?
You are right .wasn’t totally comfortable with out reading the stuff directly from archival church fathers .However ,it is Clement of Alexandria as you have the same quote I do ,perhaps with a different translation and not all my quotes have book “markings” .I trust the site that all were from this Clement , but wish they had better documentation, for your collaboration ,which is only proper . Also , I believe your quote is not the only one on Eucharist from Clement. I’m sure you would agree , we need them all. Wish I could make it easier to find them. I believe your quote is “close” to the other ones I included. Sorry.Hello david ruiz, to which Clement does your source “ONE FOLD MINISTERIES” is attaching this commentary?
There are two St.Clements, one is Pope St. Clement of Rome who never wrote a commentary on your “paedagogus-book1 ch6” which your source provides, which leaves St. Clement of Alexandria who records a disertation on the Eucharist from his book titled “Christ the Educator”, Bk 2 Chap.2 not the one you provided or mentioned above.
I don’t find any such commentary as you provided by either of these two Catholic Saints named “Clement”. Unless you can provide a more reliable source, your “Clement” commentary does not exist among the Catholic saints lending your commentary to false pretenses or twisting of Clements commentaries.
Can you clear this matter up which I call into question here? I will mention although there have been other Clements with Agathangelus, Clement Hofbauer and Clement of Okhrida, but I do not find these other Clement Catholic saints writing your “paedagogus-book1 ch6”.
Here is the Real ST.Clement of Alexandria on the mystical true presence of Jesus truly presence in His Eucharist under the species of bread and wine;
To read this Catholic saint’s writing on the Eucharist with a 20th century protestant view removes the mysticsm which the Saint provides, and waters down the revelation to mere carnal understanding.
“Now the blood of the Lord is twofold; one is corporeal, redeeming us from corruption; the other is spiritual, and it is with that we are anointed. **To drink the blood of Jesus **is to participate in His incorruption.Yet, the Spirit is the strength of the Word in the same way that the blood is of the body. Similarily, wine is mixed wih water and the Spirit is joined to man; the first, the mixture , provides feasting that faith may be increased; the other, the Spirit, leads us to incorruption. The union of both, that is, of the potion and the Word, is called the Eucharist, a gift worthy of praise and surpassingly fair; those who partake of it are sanctified in body and soul, for it is the will of the Father that man, a composite made by God, be united to the Spirit and to the Word mystically.”
Peace be with you
Well, they “thought” and “judged” wrongly. Protestants should really do away with their head-in-the-sand willful blindness once and for all about the Early Church.