Hi Eric,
…there is no Purgatory: this Lutheran will accept the idea of Purgatory if I am allowed to accept it as Father George H. Tavard is said to relate it…
I think that is pretty much the Church’s explanation as well…
"The Catechism of the Catholic Church defines purgatory as a “purification, so as to achieve the holiness necessary to enter the joy of heaven,” which is experienced by those “who die in God’s grace and friendship, but still imperfectly purified” (CCC 1030). It notes that “this final purification of the elect . . . is entirely different from the punishment of the damned” (CCC 1031).
The purification is necessary because, as Scripture teaches, nothing unclean will enter the presence of God in heaven (Rev. 21:27) and, while we may die with our mortal sins forgiven, there can still be many impurities in us, specifically venial sins and the temporal punishment due to sins already forgiven."
catholic.com/tracts/purgatory
That is good that you are willing to look at the teaching on Purgatory and evaluate it for what it really is. But did any of the “Reformers” or Protestants? I can’t think of any that didn’t reject it…which means Doctrine was changed because Purgatory was/is a matter of Christian Doctrine.
…marriage is not a sacrament The Lutheran reformers, ISTM, were far more nuanced about sacraments than simply saying, Marriage in not a Sacrament. I, frankly, don’t think it was that important a divergence in their minds.
But the Sacraments were/are part of Christian Doctrine. These were rejected base on what authority? Penance, for example, became obsolete in the minds of “Reformers” as they turned to
sola fide. That in itself is a two-fold change in Doctrine…the adding of the belief in
sola fide, and the subsequent rejection of Sacramental Confession/Penance. By what authority was this changed…or what example was pointed to as being the ‘target destination’ if they were just trying to get back to the ‘original’?
…Sola Scriptura is the test for doctrinal validity From their perspective, they saw contradiction among councils and popes. Whether or not one agrees with that perspective, it seems that was the reason for reliance on scripture.
But again, what were they aiming at? Was there a historical precedence they were trying to get back to that showed the Church using
sola scriptura? Or was this a change in Doctrine…primarily a change in so far as Sacred Tradition was put on a lower par from Scripture? And if that is the case, what authority did they have to subtract from the importance of Tradition by placing it beneath Scripture?