The Sola Scriptura Contradiction

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The simplest explanation is that at least some people have arrived at incorrect interpretations. I’m not trying to be trite… that seems like the reason.
Well, yes. And why would God leave us with just a book, like this? When our salvation can hinge on it?
Keep in mind that members of the Catholic Church are not in 100% agreement with one another. Do you suppose that means the Catholic Church’s methods of interpretation are incorrect?
The Catholic Church isnt divided in its interpretations. “Members” May disagree with the Church because they have taken it upon themselves to interpret scripture themselves. Self-interpretation does tend to produce differing opinions…
 
why would God leave us with just a book, like this? When our salvation can hinge on it?
This sounds like a rhetorical question and maybe you’re not looking for an answer, but I’ll try to answer this in a few ways anyway.

First, I don’t think it’s necessary to have all the answers. So the easiest answer for me is this: I don’t know. And I think that would be a valid answer on its own.

Second, even if no one knows why God would do something, that doesn’t obligate God to behave a certain way. Why is God obligated toward us to leave us with anything at all pertaining to our salvation? “Who has given to God that God might repay him?”

Third, what if God has left us with just a book and the answer to your question is similar to Paul’s tack in Romans 9:22, namely “so what that he has?”

Fourth, it’s not “just” a book. It’s the word of God, living and active, able to make people wise to salvation. It doesn’t leave salvation hanging out to dry.
“Members” May disagree with the Church
That’s all I meant by that: members of organizations don’t always act in line with their organization. I was trying to narrow your possible responses to official Catholic vs Protestant doctrine, instead of Catholics vs Protestants–you were talking about Catholics vs Protestants.
Self-interpretation does tend to produce differing opinions
Does the presence of different methods necessarily validate one of those methods? Is correctness determined by the number of people on board?
 
I was just about to go here myself lol. Indeed do you accept Catholics as Christians? Followed by what’s stopping you from being Catholic? Come on in the doors wide open.
 
Anyone else automatically thought of that lady’s voice on EWTN? Lol.
 
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catholicray:
by what authority do you interpret Scripture
Why is any authority at all required to interpret Scripture?
To avoid confusion.
If a monkey with a keyboard happens to randomly type the phrase “Isaiah 43:10 means that the count of divine beings is one”, then hasn’t that randomly-typing-monkey produced something correct? And if the wind randomly blows that typewritten paper into the lap of a polytheist, wouldn’t he be accountable to God if he ignores it?
No. A monkey has no authority. Nor does a piece of paper.
And even if an angel from heaven came and preached (a la Galatians 1:8) “Isaiah 43:10 means the count of divine beings is two”, then anyone at all can safely and immediately reject it without thought.
Anyone who has been properly catechized and baptized in the Catholic Church.
But how would a Hindu or other person who is not aware of the Catholic Teaching know the difference?
In fact, anyone who doesn’t reject it would then be accountable to God. So authority isn’t even necessarily required to recognize the truthfulness of an interpretation.
If some sort of divine being came and preached to a Hindu something which goes against the Gospel of Jesus Christ, there would be no more or greater sin than that in which the Hindu already finds himself. He is already following a polytheistic religion which contradicts the Gospel of Jesus Christ.
It seems evident that no authority is required in either case because scripture, like all communication, was written with an original intent. The original intent of a passage is not created through an organization’s reading of it, neither can meaning be instilled into a passage. Instead, the scripture, like any other form of communication, communicates a preformed intent and meaning.
On the contrary, the OT was written by the Jews with the Jewish intent and meaning. And the NT was written by Catholics with the intent and meaning of the Catholic Church, which is originally passed down by Jesus Christ.

cont’d
 
cont’d @thomat65
The weight of any form of communication is the weight of its author, so the weight of scripture is the weight of the Author. And all a Christian has to do is to follow the words of Christ and ignore everything else, like John 10:27 says they are able to do.
Still wrong. Although Scripture is inspired by God, He had the words written by His human proxies whom He gave the authority to enforce His Word in Tradition by word and epistle.

Scripture itself has no authority. It is a mere book which can not do anything alone. If it is left on a shelf, it can’t get up and walk to join you in the living room. And if you twist it’s meaning, you are liable to the Church, if you are Catholic or to God, if you are Protestant, because you won’t know that you’ve twisted the meaning until you get to the Judgment Seat of Christ.
Now, it does take some skill to correctly determine the original intent, and further effort to correctly apply the ancient intent to a modern scenario. But skill and effort are not the same as authority. And the validation and judge of that determination and that application is their correctness, not a stamp of approval from a trusted authority.
The Word of God is absolute. And the authority to judge the correctness of the Word of God was given by God to the Catholic Church. Men do whatever seems correct to them. Five minutes later, they change their minds. The Catholic Church is infallible and guided by the Holy Spirit. It is the authority which God placed in this world to Teach His Word infallibly.
I think the more interesting question is: how will Christians recognize correct interpretations, and what is the correct method of interpretation?
The correct method of interpretation is revealed in Scripture. The Bereans accepted the Teaching of the Church and confirmed it in Scripture. That is the three legged stool of Christian Doctrine. Tradition, Scripture, Magisterium (i.e. Church).
 
Does that mean that you accept all people self identifying as Christian as Christians?
I don’t think I understand what this has to do with my words which you quoted. I was challenging “self-interpretation does tend to produce differing opinions” as evidence against self-interpretation.

Short answer: no.

Long answer: 1 John can be seen to outline three litmus tests: faith (in accord with good doctrine), love, and obedience. A professing Christian can be shown to not be a Christian if they fail these tests.
Indeed do you accept Catholics as Christians?
I’m tempted to plead the fifth. I will simply say I would not be surprised to see some Catholics in heaven 🙂
Followed by what’s stopping you from being Catholic?
We’re straying off topic, but I’ll give a quick answer.

I’m convinced that the authorities of the Catholic Church contradict one another, leading me to believe that Roman Catholicism is internally inconsistent. For example, I believe the scriptures teach:
  1. God created and thus owns me
  2. I deserve God’s wrath and judgment to hell because I have failed to live up to his standards and have otherwise profaned him
  3. Christ died as my substitute, propitiating God and expiating my sin directly on my behalf
  4. Because Christ lives, I too will live
  5. My works ought to be done in the process of growing up into a salvation already mine, not in order to maintain it or more firmly establish it
Yet the Catholic Church appears to teach something different, while at the same time claiming scripture as an authority.

Again, these are my personal beliefs. Don’t be surprised if I dodge anything unrelated to authority in interpretation 🙂
Come on in the doors wide open.
I can also recommend many good Protestant churches 🙂
the authority to judge the correctness of the Word of God was given by God to the Catholic Church
I think this gets to the core of things. So please allow me to drill in here.

It sounds like you’re saying two things:
  1. The Word of God is objectively and inherently correct, independent of any organization’s thoughts about it
  2. The Word of God requires a judge to determine its correctness
If that’s correct, those two things seem to contradict one another.

If #2 is true, then a judge is required over the Word of God. Therefore, the judge has authority over it. Therefore, if the judge determines that something in it is not correct, then he can declare it to be false. However, #1 states that it started as objectively true. So what was objectively true has been turned into something false, which is impossible. Therefore, #1 isn’t true.

However, if #1 is true then the Word of God is objectively true. Therefore it cannot be declared false. Therefore, no one is able to judge it, meaning a judge is not allowed, meaning a judge is not necessary. Therefore #2 isn’t true.

Can you elaborate?
 
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the authority to judge the correctness of the Word of God was given by God to the Catholic Church
Remember that this is in the context that you provided, originally. You said:
Why is any authority at all required to interpret Scripture?
I think this gets to the core of things. So please allow me to drill in here.
Ok.
It sounds like you’re saying two things:
  1. The Word of God is objectively and inherently correct, independent of any organization’s thoughts about it
Correct.
  1. The Word of God requires a judge to determine its correctness
To determine if it is being interpreted correctly.
If that’s correct, those two things seem to contradict one another.
Because you’ve inadvertently changed the context.
If #2 is true, then a judge is required over the Word of God. Therefore, the judge has authority over it. Therefore, if the judge determines that something in it is not correct, then he can declare it to be false. However, #1 states that it started as objectively true. So what was objectively true has been turned into something false, which is impossible. Therefore, #1 isn’t true.
This is actually a separate subject which is not under discussion. The fact is, that the
Church is the one which was in the position of judging the correctness of Scripture. Which is the Word of God, written. But She judged this based upon the Word of God which is given to her in the Deposit of Faith by Jesus Christ and the guidance of the Holy Spirit.

You do know, that the books of the Bible were put together in the 3rd century and it was the Catholic Church which studied and decided which Holy books were to be included in the canon of Scripture, right?
However, if #1 is true then the Word of God is objectively true. Therefore it cannot be declared false. Therefore, no one is able to judge it, meaning a judge is not allowed, meaning a judge is not necessary. Therefore #2 isn’t true.
You are used to identifying the Word of God with Scripture alone. The Catholic Church does not. The Catholic Church received the Word of God in the Teaching of Jesus Christ and it remains in her Sacred Traditions. Her Sacred Traditions include Scripture. And based upon her Sacred Traditions, she can judge whether anyone, like for instance Martin Luther, has written a version of Scripture correctly. She can also judge, based upon her Traditions, including Scripture, whether someone has correctly interpreted the Word of God in their doctrines. Again, Martin Luther is a good example. He was judged to have falsely edited a version of Scripture and to have adopted false doctrines based upon that interpretation.
Can you elaborate?
I hope I’ve done so, above.

By the way, thanks for a thought provoking post. I had to come back to it a couple of times to get my thoughts together.
 
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Fourth, it’s not “just” a book. It’s the word of God, living and active, able to make people wise to salvation. It doesn’t leave salvation hanging out to dry.
I’m sorry, but you are so very wrong here. Interpreted wrongly, the Bible does become just a book, a book full of the Word of Man. I don’t understand how people can’t see this. When you twist anyone’s words to mean something different than intended, be it God’s words or even man’s, it is then no longer their words. Even you and I would say “No, thats not what I said!” If someone ascribed the wrong meaning to our words. When something is written, it is written in order to transmit a meaning. And actually yes, the words of salvation really can be left hung out to dry when the word of God is wrongly interpreted.

Christianity fulfills Judaism in a beautiful way. During Jesus’s time there was no private interpretation of scripture. The Rabbis were ordered to TEACH, from scripture as well as their oral tradition. They were not simply ordered to READ. Do you know where their authoritative teachings came from? The Seat of Moses. Ring a bell? Yes, the seat of Peter fulfills the seat of Moses. You should really go and learn about Judaism as it was during the time of Jesus, and discover for yourself how beautifully God fulfilled the Old Law when he established His Church.
 
Scripture [is] the Word of God, written. But She judged this based upon the Word of God which is given to her in the Deposit of Faith by Jesus Christ and the guidance of the Holy Spirit.
Thank you for taking the time to clarify this for me.

Am I correct in summarizing it this way: “the Word of God is composed of parts, including written things, a Deposit of Faith, and future guidance”?

That would mean you’re saying these two things, correct?
  1. The Word of God (as a whole, including all the parts) is objectively and inherently correct, independent of any organization’s thoughts about it
  2. The future aspects of the Word of God require a judge to determine their correctness
To determine if it is being interpreted correctly.
By “it” I think you were referring to “the Word of God” (which hopefully I understand better now).

Would you then say this: “interpretations of scripture require a judge to determine their correctness”?

Assuming you would say that, please allow me to clarify something: I agree with that statement.

But judging an interpretation and producing an interpretation are two different things. I’ve been trying to focus on an aspect of the latter: my thesis is that no authority is needed to produce a correct interpretation.

I hope you don’t mind me picking and choosing what I interact with. I’m trying to stick with what I think gets to the root most quickly.
If a monkey with a keyboard happens to randomly type the phrase “Isaiah 43:10 means that the count of divine beings is one”, then hasn’t that randomly-typing-monkey produced something correct? And if the wind randomly blows that typewritten paper into the lap of a polytheist, wouldn’t he be accountable to God if he ignores it?
So back to this, can you clarify which statement the “no” is intended to cover?
  1. “the randomly-typing monkey has produced something correct”
  2. “the polytheist is accountable to God if he ignores it”
If you mean “the randomly-typing monkey has produced something incorrect”, then can you expand on why two identical pieces of information are not necessarily identically correct?

If you mean “he is not accountable to God for ignoring it”, then can you expand on why people might be accountable to photocopies, emails, TV broadcasts, etc of RCC Dogmas (if you wouldn’t say RCC Dogmas that’s fine, replace that with something to which you would say people are bound. Perhaps you would believe me to be accountable to God for ignoring some of the things held to be truth in this thread, so pick that if you like) and not to an identical copy produced by the random monkey?

Further, if you mean only “no, he is not accountable to God” you would be agreeing with the first statement. Meaning you agree that the monkey has produced a correct interpretation without any authority.
By the way, thanks
Thank you!
 
To further your point, it is immaterial if you have infallible source material if you don’t have an infallible interpreter, without the interpreter’s infallibility, the document can be falsely interpreted. Further, scripture itself declares that the interpretation of Scripture is not up to any-one Christian alone, but the Church as a whole.
 
But judging an interpretation and producing an interpretation are two different things. I’ve been trying to focus on an aspect of the latter: my thesis is that no authority is needed to produce a correct interpretation.
Sure, it’s possible for someone to reach a correct conclusion on what a part of scripture means on their own. That’s a given. However, there is never a guarantee that it’s correct if it’s not coming from one that has been given the authority to interpret it. So We should all only take an individual’s (including our own) personal interpretation with a grain of salt.
 
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Emeraldlady:
Does that mean that you accept all people self identifying as Christian as Christians?
I don’t think I understand what this has to do with my words which you quoted. I was challenging “self-interpretation does tend to produce differing opinions” as evidence against self-interpretation.

Short answer: no.

Long answer: 1 John can be seen to outline three litmus tests: faith (in accord with good doctrine), love, and obedience. A professing Christian can be shown to not be a Christian if they fail these tests.
What do you understand by “in accord with good doctrine” in testing faith? Are you acknowledging that there is a source outside ourselves which we measure our faith by? If so what is that source?
 
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De_Maria:
Scripture [is] the Word of God, written. But She judged this based upon the Word of God which is given to her in the Deposit of Faith by Jesus Christ and the guidance of the Holy Spirit.
Thank you for taking the time to clarify this for me.

Am I correct in summarizing it this way: “the Word of God is composed of parts, including written things, a Deposit of Faith, and future guidance”?
I would say it this way,
The Word of God is provided to us in the Deposit of Faith, which includes Sacred Tradition and Scripture, as well as the promise of future guidance.

In a sense, the Word of God is God. He is Jesus Christ, the Word of God incarnate, the one Medium, the one Mediator between God and man. Maybe this would be a good time to share the official explanation.

75 "Christ the Lord, in whom the entire Revelation of the most high God is summed up, commanded the apostles to preach the Gospel, …

97 “Sacred Tradition and Sacred Scripture make up a single sacred deposit of the Word of God” (DV 10) …
That would mean you’re saying these two things, correct?
  1. The Word of God (as a whole, including all the parts) is objectively and inherently correct, independent of any organization’s thoughts about it
Basically, yes.
  1. The future aspects of the Word of God require a judge to determine their correctness
The future, as yet not understood aspects, of the Word of God, require a judge to determine their correctness.

We have received the full revelation. There are parts of the revelation which we have not completely understood. An example, the Trinity. Scripture reveals that there is such a thing as one God in the name of the Father, Son and Holy Spirit. But that’s about it. If we go to the Church, we find that the Church has developed that Teaching much further. This was prophecied by Jesus Christ when He said:

John 16:13 Howbeit when he, the Spirit of truth, is come, he will guide you into all truth:
To determine if it is being interpreted correctly.
By “it” I think you were referring to “the Word of God” (which hopefully I understand better now).
Yes. Well, to be more precise, the Revelation of the Word of God.

cont’d
 
cont’d with @thomat65
Would you then say this: “interpretations of scripture require a judge to determine their correctness”?
Yes. Remember how the Catholic Church was reviled for burning bibles? They were burning bibles which she determined were not translated properly.
Assuming you would say that, please allow me to clarify something: I agree with that statement.

But judging an interpretation and producing an interpretation are two different things.
Judging and interpreting are two different actions, yes.
I’ve been trying to focus on an aspect of the latter: my thesis is that no authority is needed to produce a correct interpretation.
For whom? Let’s say that you’re a parent. And you want your children to believe in God. But people at school want to interpret God out of the Bible. And they want to inculcate their belief into your child. Do they have the authority to do that?

Do you follow?
I hope you don’t mind me picking and choosing what I interact with. I’m trying to stick with what I think gets to the root most quickly.
No problem.
If a monkey with a keyboard happens to randomly type the phrase “Isaiah 43:10 means that the count of divine beings is one”,…wouldn’t he be accountable to God if he ignores it?
So back to this, can you clarify which statement the “no” is intended to cover?
Both. That’s why I said that neither the monkey nor piece of paper have any authority.
  1. “the randomly-typing monkey has produced something correct”
I believe I answered, “Yes” to that. If not, I’ll do it now.
  1. “the polytheist is accountable to God if he ignores it”
Again, anyone who has been properly catechized and baptized in the Catholic Church would be accountable to God for ignoring His Word. But how would a Hindu or other person who is not aware of the Catholic Teaching know the difference?
If you mean “the randomly-typing monkey has produced something incorrect”, then can you expand on why two identical pieces of information are not necessarily identically correct?
I don’t know what you mean. The monkey was correct, but has no authority to enforce his correctness.
If you mean “he is not accountable to God for ignoring it”, then can you expand on why people might be accountable to photocopies, emails, …and not to an identical copy produced by the random monkey?
The question is a bit complicated. But I’ll try to address it as easily as I can.

First, those of us who are baptized are bound to obey the Catholic Church.
Second, but we don’t obey just any so-called copy or email blindly. I, for example, go to official websites and to official Churches which submit to the Pope.

I believe this will explain why Catholics don’t attend non-Catholic services. Although Protestants seem to consider their gatherings interchangeable.
Further, if you mean only “no, he is not accountable to God” you would be agreeing with the first statement. Meaning you agree that the monkey has produced a correct interpretation without any authority.
Agreed.
 
Sorry for the delay… rate limited as a new user.
Fourth, it’s not “just” a book. It’s the word of God, living and active, able to make people wise to salvation. It doesn’t leave salvation hanging out to dry.
Well, sort of. May I politely suggest that this is talking past my point? Incorrect interpretations of scripture are different than scripture itself.

The scriptures themselves are more than just a book. I don’t think this should be controversial to either of us. Here are a few verses from scripture talking about itself:
  • It’s the word of God (embarrassingly, I am unable to find a proof text for this. Feel free to help if you know of one)
  • It’s living and active. Hebrews 4:12 (although I suppose if “word of God” is not scripture then this verse might not apply)
  • It’s able to make people wise to salvation. 2 Timothy 3:15
  • It guides us, councils us, revives us, guards us, strengthens us. Snippets from Psalm 119
It’s quite amazing that God is so gracious to have given the scriptures!
Sure, it’s possible for someone to reach a correct conclusion on what a part of scripture means on their own. That’s a given.
That’s really all I’ve been trying to say. I may be fighting for an insignificant hill and may be too pedantic, but oh well 🙂
What do you understand by “in accord with good doctrine” in testing faith?
I was attempting to summarize 1 John. I won’t defend my summary because it’s not important. My point was simply that 1 John details some tests by which one can determine if one is “lying and not practicing the truth” or if “the blood of Jesus his Son cleanses us from all sin”. 1 John isn’t the only part of scripture that enables this testing, just the first that came to mind.
Are you acknowledging that there is a source outside ourselves which we measure our faith by? If so what is that source?
This sounds like a quick exit into the weeds. I’m not prepared to discuss the Rule of Faith (I’m just a programmer! sob!), and I also think that branches away from what I’ve been trying to focus on: the role of authority in creating correct interpretations. So I hope you don’t mind if I dodge this question 🙂
 
But people at school want to interpret God out of the Bible. And they want to inculcate their belief into your child. Do they have the authority to do that?
Do they have the authority to interpret God out of the bible? Well, who has succeeded in stopping them? So I think it’s evident that they do. But their interpretations aren’t correct, and of course no one has the authority to correctly interpret God out of scripture. Which leads into the question “how can we know if an interpretation is correct”, but that’s not the question I’m engaging.

Do they have the authority to inculcate their belief into my child? Not if I tell them not to (of course I would tell them not to do that). And if they were to continue in spite of that then I would look for ways to rope in other authorities, as I’m sure any parent would do.
If you mean “the randomly-typing monkey has produced something incorrect”, then can you expand on why two identical pieces of information are not necessarily identically correct?
That’s all I mean. The monkey has produced a correct interpretation in spite of his lack of authority.

That’s why:
I think the more interesting question is: how will Christians recognize correct interpretations, and what is the correct method of interpretation?
But keep in mind I’m not interested in actually answering those “more interesting” questions (at least not in this thread–maybe if I can figure out how to start a new thread…). I simply want to point out that “by what authority do you interpret Scripture” is not the best question. I’ll consider all my pedantic rambling a success if I convince anyone to ask their Protestant friend “by what authority do you recognize a correct interpretation” next time 🙂
 
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De_Maria:
But people at school want to interpret God out of the Bible. And they want to inculcate their belief into your child. Do they have the authority to do that?
Do they have the authority to interpret God out of the bible? Well, who has succeeded in stopping them?
Oh, I see what you’re saying. You’re just talking about interpretation with no real purpose in mind.

As I see it, they neither have the right to interpret the Bible in conflict with God’s intended meaning.

But especially, they have no right to teach their false interpretation to your child.
So I think it’s evident that they do.
It’s evident that they have, but they have not done it with any authority behind them. For instance, if a person steals something from someone, he doesn’t have the authority to do so. He transgresses authority in order to do so.
But their interpretations aren’t correct, and of course no one has the authority to correctly interpret God out of scripture. Which leads into the question “how can we know if an interpretation is correct”, but that’s not the question I’m engaging.
Do they have the authority to inculcate their belief into my child? Not if I tell them not to (of course I would tell them not to do that). And if they were to continue in spite of that then I would look for ways to rope in other authorities, as I’m sure any parent would do.
We’re on the same page.
If you mean “the randomly-typing monkey has produced something incorrect”, then can you expand on why two identical pieces of information are not necessarily identically correct?
That’s all I mean. The monkey has produced a correct interpretation in spite of his lack of authority.
Right.
That’s why:
I think the more interesting question is: how will Christians recognize correct interpretations, and what is the correct method of interpretation?
I think I answered this previously. We use the three legged stool. We compare the interpretation to the Teaching of the Church, and to interpretations of Scripture in accordance with the Magisterium.
But keep in mind I’m not interested in actually answering those “more interesting” questions (at least not in this thread–maybe if I can figure out how to start a new thread…). I simply want to point out that “by what authority do you interpret Scripture” is not the best question. I’ll consider all my pedantic rambling a success if I convince anyone to ask their Protestant friend “by what authority do you recognize a correct interpretation” next time 🙂
I’ll do that and I’ll report my findings to you. I posted the question on an anti-Catholic forum. They generally bite right away. So, I’ll give you a smattering of the responses tomorrow.
 
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  • It’s the word of God (embarrassingly, I am unable to find a proof text for this. Feel free to help if you know of one)
  • It’s living and active. Hebrews 4:12 (although I suppose if “word of God” is not scripture then this verse might not apply)
  • It’s able to make people wise to salvation. 2 Timothy 3:15
  • It guides us, councils us, revives us, guards us, strengthens us. Snippets from Psalm 119
Yes, the scriptures are more than a dead book when properly interpreted. But the whole thing, including those verses, was written with an Authoritative Interpreter in mind. As for your point, we are back to the monkey, again. The monkey may come to the correct interpretation, but even so, he the will never know if he does because he has no authority to declare what’s correct…so what’s the point in that?
 
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