I hope my post is not too confusing or containing too many questions. It seems the further I dig the more questions pop up and I feel I know a lot less than I thought I did about Catholic doctrine. This post kind of triggered a chain reaction of questions in my mind.
So last week sometime a girlfriend of mine (Baptist) asked a question about Matthew 8:10. I offered the explanation from the USCCB website that spoke about the intercessions of angels. She immediately shot down that idea as she does not believe in intercessions yet she believes in praying for each other. Anyway, I’ve been delving into our practice of intercessions to try to come up with and intelligible way of dialoguing with my friend so that I have a thorough background to any scripture that might come up. I started thinking that our beliefs of Mary as Co-mediatrix may be a good place to start. Another friend (the dialogue has become a group conversation as of recent) suggested 1 Timothy 2:5 "For there is one God and One mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus . . . " While this verse sounds all well and good for the argument against Mary as co-mediatrix the previous verse states that “[God] who wants all men to be saved and to come to a knowledge of the truth.” This reminds me of John 13:13 where it speaks of Jesus being our teacher which leads me to the conclusion that Jesus is the one who teaches us that knowledge of truth. We humans in turn must make the decision to accept that authority of truth and obey and hopefully end up in full Communion with God or to deny Jesus’ truth and go our own way (which obviously is not the way to salvation). Is this a correct interpretation? Is it in lines with Church teachings or am I taking things out of context?
Later on in 1 Timothy 2:11-15 it talks about how a woman should be submissive to her husband and to never have authority over him or teach him as Adam was formed first then Eve, and as we all know Eve was formed of Adam’s rib. This relates more directly with your quote from above. Jesus took flesh from Mary, so does that mean that Mary has authority over Jesus in some way or is that strictly in an earthly sense (obedience to father and mother 4th commandment). I could see how one could interpret this to explain Mary’s intersessional influence, but does she have any sort of authority over Jesus? I would imagine that she would not have authority over his divinity as that is of God thus corroborating “there is only one mediator between God and men.” Mary’s co-redeeming “properties” in relation to salvation is that of transcendence. Although Jesus was born of Mary, she is an outward sign pointing to Jesus, he transcends her, thus it is only through Jesus that we are saved, the one mediator. Do I seem to have a pretty good grasp, or am I all sorts of wrong?
~Ann (aka fluffywumpkins)