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Dancelittleewok
Guest
To put it in your theology:I don’t mean to give you are hard time, but I just don’t follow you.
Adam, the representative of humanity in the Garden, he commits original sin.
Consequently, humanity is totally depraved and has a “sin nature.”
Christ, the New Adam, commits no sin and has no “sin nature.” Christ is both God and man.
Christ suffers for the elect on the Cross, suffering the wrath from the Father as he puts the elect’s sin upon His Son and can no longer look upon His Son.
The elect are few arbitrarily chosen by God.
They are saved and have eternal life. Everybody else is damned.
My critique:
Can Christ truly be the new Adam if He only died for the elect while conversely the original Adam’s sin affected all? Whom is God going to send for those affected by the Fall?
You have two choices:
- Christ wasn’t representative of humanity but of the elect. And following that logic to be the New Adam, the original Adam’s sin must have only affected some. If that’s the case, then you do have sinless humans walking around unaffected by original sin. Yet you don’t believe that, since you’ve said all have sinned. Plus if Christ only died for the elect, then the rest of humanity wasn’t saved to begin with and God’s role as Savior is questioned because He would have to send another to fulfill the promise in Genesis 3:15. See the disconnect?
- Christ died and redeemed all i.e. “Once and for all” (Hebrew 10:10). Adam’s sin affected all. So therefore, the New Adam’s sacrifice is truly sufficient, there is no other Savior needed to save the rest of mankind. Mankind has a choice to partake of this great gift to salvation or damned himself by his own free will hence the claim of universalism doesn’t equate.