The Truth about the Gallileo affair - by an Atheist

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The only problem being that although it’s been asked for repeatedly, not one shred of evidence has even been produced for the OP claim that the supposed myths are “lies that you still find repeated in high school and university texts”.

No evidence has been produced that these supposed “five myths” appear anywhere outside of dilettante internet blogs and forums.
Is it really your only problem?

You have cherry picked the OP, so lets look at the whole sentence:

“The truth has always been available but those who hated the Church continued to propagate numerous lies down to the present day, lies that you still find repeated in high school and university texts and popular non-fiction, pseudo science down to the present day.”

Before I completed my formal education, which was before the internet, I heard four of the five myths. My children know the myths and their spouses know the myths. The myths have been repeated on this forum. It is clear the myths are still being repeated and believed.
Even then,
I agree. It is really not your only problem but a red herring. We all know the myths are out there, and they are still out there to this day.
… suppose we take the third “myth”, that “The Church condemned heliocentrism because it believed the Bible had to be interpreted literally”.

John Paul II himself says that’s no myth, that’s a statement of fact:

“The error of the theologians of the time, when they maintained the centrality of the earth, was to think that our understanding of the physical world’s structure was, in some way, imposed by the literal sense of Sacred Scripture.” - L’Osservatore Romano N. 44 (1264) - November 4, 1992

So, as a Catholic, do you want me to trust the word of internet bloggers or do you want me to trust the word of Pope John Paul II?
The internet blogger gave an accurate explanation on why it is a myth. While you cherry picked the OP to make his point seem to be more narrow than it was, you have done the same thing with the Cardinal, the Pope, and the Catholic Church.
Pope John Paul II explained in his talk, that you referenced, that “the geocentric representation of the world was commonly admitted in the culture of the time as fully agreeing with the teaching of the Bible” and “the new science, with its methods and the freedom of research which they implied, obliged theologians to examine their own criteria of scriptural interpretation. Most of them did not know how to do so.” “The majority of theologians did not recognize the formal distinction between Sacred Scripture and its interpretation, and this led them unduly to transpose into the realm of the doctrine of the faith a question which in fact pertained to scientific investigation.”
Theologians are not the Church, and a ‘majority’ or ‘most’ is not all.
The Pope then reminds us what Cardinal Poupard said Cardinal Bellarmine wrote, “I say that if it were really demonstrated that the sun is at the centre of the world and the earth is in the third heaven, and that it is not the sun which revolves round the earth, but the earth round the sun, then it would be necessary to proceed with great circumspection in the explanation of Scriptural texts which seem contrary to this assertion and to say that we do not understand them, rather than to say that what is demonstrated is false.” and what St. Augustine wrote, ’If it happens that the authority of Sacred Scripture is set in opposition to clear and certain reasoning, this must mean that the person who interprets Scripture does not understand it correctly. It is not the meaning of Scripture which is opposed to the truth, but the meaning which he has wanted to give to it. That which is opposed to Scripture is not what is in Scripture but what he has placed there himself, believing that this is what Scripture meant’

The internet blogger also quoted Cardinal Bellarmine because as Cardinal Poupard said and the Pope affirmed, Cardinal Bellermine articulated the Church position at the time of the trial. The Church is willing to change its exegesis if heliocentrism can be proven. So it is a myth that heliocentrism was condemned because the Church believed the Bible had to be taken literally. As the internet blogger pointed out, biblical literalism is found in Protestantism, not Catholicism.

To answer your question, You don’t have to choose; they are both right.
 
I don’t remember anyone saying anything about your faith.

I imagine you’re huffing and puffing to cover you retreat, but as I’m not feeling overly full of mercy at the minute 😃 it remains that any Catholic, including Pope John Paul II and Pope Francis, could justifiably state the obvious fact that if Catholics won’t accept the word of a Pope, they can’t expect anyone else to either.

Before replying, you might like to recall the First Law Of Holes: When in one, stop digging.
Not " huffing and puffing, " I am just stating that Catholics believe certain very definite things and though the whole world stand up and scream, we will continue to believe all that the Church teaches.

And it does not teach " prudential " opinions. And the world can make of that what it will.

Linus2nd
 
Yes I do. Not only am I an engineer myself, but my wife is a physicist. She has had this conversation with a number of colleagues The term, planetary retrograde motion describes the APPEARANT movement of the planets backwards.
Great. But you wrote that Copernican system cannot explain retrograde motion. This is of course false; the retrograde motion is explained naturally by Copernican system, but requires epicycles in Ptolemaic system.
Galileo attempted to explain it using his model, but his predictions were incredibly off, since his model leveraged circular orbits.
Not really “incredibly” off. A Copernican model without epicycles has a prediction error of +/-8 minutes of arc for Mars (per Kepler’s own book), and that’s the worst case, because Mars has the most elliptical orbit. Compared to a “pure” Ptolemaic model which cannot account for the retrograde motion at all (unless you invoke epicycles) that was a major step forward, I’d say.

Anyway, you do realize that Kepler solved that problem back in 1609 and in 1627 he published an ephemeris table which was correct to the measurement accuracy (2’)?

So the 1633 court convicted Galileo of heresy in spite of available mathematical evidence that planets do indeed move around the sun and they do it in – horror! – elliptical orbits.
That was his theory, but the point was, it was not proved. Which is what we are discussing, how thourghly was the theory PROVEN.
Yes, and the proof of geocentrism was…?
 
So the 1633 court convicted Galileo of heresy in spite of available mathematical evidence that planets do indeed move around the sun and they do it in – horror! – elliptical orbits.
Galileo proved Venus moved around the sun but he did not prove the earth did.

What were Michael Servetus thoughts on heliocentrism?
 
Galileo proved Venus moved around the sun but he did not prove the earth did.
It does not matter, because Kepler did. 7 years before the first injunction(!).

Again: the court did not bother to investigate observational evidence.
 
Great. But you wrote that Copernican system cannot explain retrograde motion. This is of course false; the retrograde motion is explained naturally by Copernican system, but requires epicycles in Ptolemaic system[/qiote]

No, I stated that the predictions on plantary retrograde given by Galileo’s model was way off…

Not really “incredibly” off. A Copernican model without epicycles has a prediction error of +/-8 minutes of arc for Mars (per Kepler’s own book), and that’s the worst case, because Mars has the most elliptical orbit. Compared to a “pure” Ptolemaic model which cannot account for the retrograde motion at all (unless you invoke epicycles) that was a major step forward, I’d say.
Anyway, you do realize that Kepler solved that problem back in 1609 and in 1627 he published an ephemeris table which was correct to the measurement accuracy (2’)?
 
It does not matter, because Kepler did. 7 years before the first injunction(!).

Again: the court did not bother to investigate observational evidence.
What actual scientific proof did Kepler offer? Yes, he predicted a transit of Venus in 1631, but it was not visible from Europe. So there was no actual empirical proof of his model the observation of the 1639 transit.

At the time, the 1631 transit of Mercury WAS witness, but there was substantial doubt, as the size of Mercury was so small, Gassendi himself was not convinced he was actually witnessing Mercury.

So what observational evidence was the court to look at ?
 
Is it really your only problem?

You have cherry picked the OP, so lets look at the whole sentence:

“The truth has always been available but those who hated the Church continued to propagate numerous lies down to the present day, lies that you still find repeated in high school and university texts and popular non-fiction, pseudo science down to the present day.”

Before I completed my formal education, which was before the internet, I heard four of the five myths. My children know the myths and their spouses know the myths. The myths have been repeated on this forum. It is clear the myths are still being repeated and believed.

I agree. It is really not your only problem but a red herring. We all know the myths are out there, and they are still out there to this day.

The internet blogger gave an accurate explanation on why it is a myth. While you cherry picked the OP to make his point seem to be more narrow than it was, you have done the same thing with the Cardinal, the Pope, and the Catholic Church.
Pope John Paul II explained in his talk, that you referenced, that “the geocentric representation of the world was commonly admitted in the culture of the time as fully agreeing with the teaching of the Bible” and “the new science, with its methods and the freedom of research which they implied, obliged theologians to examine their own criteria of scriptural interpretation. Most of them did not know how to do so.” “The majority of theologians did not recognize the formal distinction between Sacred Scripture and its interpretation, and this led them unduly to transpose into the realm of the doctrine of the faith a question which in fact pertained to scientific investigation.”
Theologians are not the Church, and a ‘majority’ or ‘most’ is not all.
The Pope then reminds us what Cardinal Poupard said Cardinal Bellarmine wrote, “I say that if it were really demonstrated that the sun is at the centre of the world and the earth is in the third heaven, and that it is not the sun which revolves round the earth, but the earth round the sun, then it would be necessary to proceed with great circumspection in the explanation of Scriptural texts which seem contrary to this assertion and to say that we do not understand them, rather than to say that what is demonstrated is false.” and what St. Augustine wrote, ’If it happens that the authority of Sacred Scripture is set in opposition to clear and certain reasoning, this must mean that the person who interprets Scripture does not understand it correctly. It is not the meaning of Scripture which is opposed to the truth, but the meaning which he has wanted to give to it. That which is opposed to Scripture is not what is in Scripture but what he has placed there himself, believing that this is what Scripture meant’

The internet blogger also quoted Cardinal Bellarmine because as Cardinal Poupard said and the Pope affirmed, Cardinal Bellermine articulated the Church position at the time of the trial. The Church is willing to change its exegesis if heliocentrism can be proven. So it is a myth that heliocentrism was condemned because the Church believed the Bible had to be taken literally. As the internet blogger pointed out, biblical literalism is found in Protestantism, not Catholicism.

To answer your question, You don’t have to choose; they are both right.
Thank you, a nice rebuttle.

Yes, Inocente criticises the internet sources of teaching materials which give a biased account of the affair but refuses to recognize that if such a rendering was not being taught in schools these companies would have no market for their product, they wouldn’t be wasting good money producing the product if their wasn’t a good market. Admittedly this is not proof that the same bias is in textbooks, but it does prove that it is a bias that is taught in the classroom. And that is the key point - the bias is clearly being taught.

Pax
Linus2nd …

Pax
Linus2n
 
What actual scientific proof did Kepler offer? Yes, he predicted a transit of Venus in 1631, but it was not visible from Europe. So there was no actual empirical proof of his model the observation of the 1639 transit.

At the time, the 1631 transit of Mercury WAS witness, but there was substantial doubt, as the size of Mercury was so small, Gassendi himself was not convinced he was actually witnessing Mercury.

So what observational evidence was the court to look at ?
Good work.

Pax
Linus2nd
 
So what observational evidence was the court to look at ?
Exact prediction of Mars orbit, which is impossible under any other model.

Of course this is academic, because as we know, the court was not even interested in objective evidence at all.
 
No, I stated that the predictions on plantary retrograde given by Galileo’s model was way off…
8’ is not far off – it is about 1/4th of the full Moon. Especially compared to Ptolemaic model without epicycles, which gets the position of Mars wrong by several full Moons, because it cannot account for retrograde at all…

Tycho measured planetary positions to 2’, and Kepler had his model working this accuracy in 1609, and published forward ephemeris in 1627. So there was 5 full years worth of observational data to confirm the prediction by the time of the trial.
 
Exact prediction of Mars orbit, which is impossible under any other model.

Of course this is academic, because as we know, the court was not even interested in objective evidence at all.
When the observer himself was unsure that it was Mars that he was seeing? No scientific journal today would accept that level of proof, so why should the courts have.
 
You realize that this was falsified by Kepler in 1609 using Tycho’s own data?
The Keplerian Model did not falsify the Typhonic Model because by using Tycho’s data they both explain the heavenly observations (save the phenomena/appearances); as Kepler basically said in 1625. At the time of the trial only the Ptolemaic Model had been falsified.
 
When the observer himself was unsure that it was Mars that he was seeing? No scientific journal today would accept that level of proof, so why should the courts have.
Can you name a celestial object which could be plausibly misidentified as Mars by a professional? Further, can you name a celestial object which could be plausibly misidentified as Mars by a professional using a telescope with 20x zoom (which is what was used at the time)?
 
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