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Nate13
Guest
Explain the medical problems that would arise that would prevent NFP from being used effectively, but would not prevent intercourse? The only way a person would be unable to use NFP is if temperature readings, mucus readings, and cervix positioning were all impossible to get consistent readings from that reflected the woman’s current fertility state. I do not know of any conditions that would prevent all of these readings from being applicable, especially cervix position, without also being a condition that would render intercourse impossible. The quote you posted by the way is explaining the reasonable circumstances by which a couple may resolve to use NFP to morally avoid having a child at that time.… and if NFP is not an option due to medical reasons then what?
Let me guess, let’s take away the unitive part of sex from a married couple as well.
Good luck to you in sharing bed with your spouse that you love without sex.
Now lets assume this is true and intercourse is not possible. Your now claiming foul since a couple is denied the unitive aspect of sex. I have to ask you though, how “unitive” is non-intercourse sex? Is it not a shadow of the real thing? How is having morally decrepit sex a solution to fixing the real, and sad problem of a couple not being able to express their love through intercourse? This seems like similar reasoning to the argument that rape victims should be able to have abortions. One horrible thing happens to the woman that is not her fault, and we propose to fix it by doing another horrible thing to her and her baby.