G
GKMotley
Guest
Not at all. It was a very good year.
Expect for over the East where the Catholic Church agrees authority was never exercised.Think about it.
Did Jesus limit Peter on what part of the Church he is not over? NO
If people don’t accept the authority Jesus put in place, what THEN?
here’s a 1st century example of authority, ( St John is still alive at this time) and Pope Clement of Rome, exercised authority, in an Eastern Church HERE which was over … wait for it … SCHISM among THEIR bishops.steve-b:![]()
If that’s the case, why did the Catholic Bishops & theologians at Chieti agree that Rome never exercised authority over the East during the first millennium?Dodge all YOU want, authority is a huge problem for the Orthodox.
Not my history - I’m just stating what your own bishops agreed to and what is published on the Vatican website.try and explain your own history in this.
This thread has long been off the rails - some pertinent music is a great idea!Not to derail this thread but I couldn’t resist:
It is saying, the EAST ( not all in the East) didn’t follow the script Jesus established with Peter as the leader.steve-b:![]()
Not my history - I’m just stating what your own bishops agreed to and what is published on the Vatican website.try and explain your own history in this.
So when the Catholic & Orthodox dialogue participants agreed that:It is saying, the EAST ( not all in the East) didn’t follow the script Jesus established with Peter as the leader.
this actually means that the East rebelled against Rome?Appeals to the bishop of Rome from the East expressed the communion of the Church, but the bishop of Rome did not exercise canonical authority over the churches of the East.
Ultimately, my position comes down to history is a lot more complicated and murky than either hardcore Catholic or hardcore Orthodox apologists are willing to admit. Both sides need to be willing to swallow some pride and admit the other has valid points that need to accounted for. It won’t be “easy” for any of us to get to the point of reestablishing communion.Thanks - I needed a good laugh.
However, @steve-b is right re Pope Clement I.
Isaac14:![]()
So when the Catholic & Orthodox dialogue participants agreed that:It is saying, the EAST ( not all in the East) didn’t follow the script Jesus established with Peter as the leader.
this actually means that the East rebelled against Rome?Appeals to the bishop of Rome from the East expressed the communion of the Church, but the bishop of Rome did not exercise canonical authority over the churches of the East.
Probably because even if Rome didn’t have authority in terms of power structures, Rome was still greatly respected (and its opinions greatly valued) for its strong orthodox faith.If Rome (i.e. the pope) has no authority in the East, why then would the East even appeal to him?
So…supposedly , Rome has great respect, and the opinions are greatly valued, by the Orthodox, but Rome (the pope) has no authority that goes along with that respect and valued opinions with the Orthodox.steve-b:![]()
Probably because even if Rome didn’t have authority in terms of power structures, Rome was still greatly respected (and its opinions greatly valued) for its strong orthodox faith.If Rome (i.e. the pope) has no authority in the East, why then would the East even appeal to him?
You’ll have to take this up with your Bishops and theologians who are agreeing to these statements and publishing them on the Vatican’s website. Here are few more quotes from Chieti:So…supposedly , Rome has great respect, and the opinions are greatly valued, but Rome (the pope) has no authority that goes along with that respect and valued opinions.
Who decided THAT conflict of opinion?
Particularly when
we know how Jesus set up His hierarchy in His Church., and your explanation goes contrary to Peter’s office established by Jesus
- In the West, the primacy of the see of Rome was understood, particularly from the fourth century onwards, with reference to Peter’s role among the Apostles. The primacy of the bishop of Rome among the bishops was gradually interpreted as a prerogative that was his because he was successor of Peter, the first of the apostles.(12) This understanding was not adopted in the East, which had a different interpretation of the Scriptures and the Fathers on this point. Our dialogue may return to this matter in the future.
For example, prompted by historical circumstances, the Seventh Ecumenical Council (Nicaea II, 787) gave a detailed description of the criteria as then understood: the agreement ( symphonia ) of the heads of the churches, the cooperation ( synergeia ) of the bishop of Rome, and the agreement of the other patriarchs ( symphronountes ). An ecumenical council must have its own proper number in the sequence of ecumenical councils, and its teaching must accord with that of previous councils.(13) Reception by the Church as a whole has always been the ultimate criterion for the ecumenicity of a council.
- Throughout the first millennium, the Church in the East and the West was united in preserving the apostolic faith, maintaining the apostolic succession of bishops, developing structures of synodality inseparably linked with primacy, and in an understanding of authority as a service ( diakonia ) of love. Though the unity of East and West was troubled at times, the bishops of East and West were conscious of belonging to the one Church.
Re: The 4th century = the 300’ssteve-b:![]()
You’ll have to take this up with your Bishops and theologians who are agreeing to these statements and publishing them on the Vatican’s website. Here are few more quotes from Chieti:So…supposedly , Rome has great respect, and the opinions are greatly valued, but Rome (the pope) has no authority that goes along with that respect and valued opinions.
Who decided THAT conflict of opinion?
Particularly when
we know how Jesus set up His hierarchy in His Church., and your explanation goes contrary to Peter’s office established by Jesus
- In the West, the primacy of the see of Rome was understood, particularly from the fourth century onwards, with reference to Peter’s role among the Apostles. The primacy of the bishop of Rome among the bishops was gradually interpreted as a prerogative that was his because he was successor of Peter, the first of the apostles.(12) This understanding was not adopted in the East, which had a different interpretation of the Scriptures and the Fathers on this point. Our dialogue may return to this matter in the future.
For example, prompted by historical circumstances, the Seventh Ecumenical Council (Nicaea II, 787) gave a detailed description of the criteria as then understood: the agreement ( symphonia ) of the heads of the churches, the cooperation ( synergeia ) of the bishop of Rome, and the agreement of the other patriarchs ( symphronountes ). An ecumenical council must have its own proper number in the sequence of ecumenical councils, and its teaching must accord with that of previous councils.(13) Reception by the Church as a whole has always been the ultimate criterion for the ecumenicity of a council.
- Throughout the first millennium, the Church in the East and the West was united in preserving the apostolic faith, maintaining the apostolic succession of bishops, developing structures of synodality inseparably linked with primacy, and in an understanding of authority as a service ( diakonia ) of love. Though the unity of East and West was troubled at times, the bishops of East and West were conscious of belonging to the one Church.
Great, but what am I supposed to do with what your own bishops and theologians agree to and publish on the Vatican website? Are they wrong? Do you disagree with what your bishops are agreeing to?I submit
Re: Quotes from the time frame, about Papal Primacy in the 1st 300 yrs as understood by East and West. Some dates slip over into 400.
In those docs quoted, that shows the 1st 300 yrs of Church history.steve-b:![]()
Great, but what am I supposed to do with what your own bishops and theologians agree to and publish on the Vatican website? Are they wrong? Do you disagree with what your bishops are agreeing to?I submit
Re: Quotes from the time frame, about Papal Primacy in the 1st 300 yrs as understood by East and West. Some dates slip over into 400.
Why, then, did your bishops and theologians agree to statements that seem to contradict your point?to that point, the quotes I gave previously show the history of papal primacy, is there from the beginning, (showing quotes from the 1st 300 yrs from ECF’s East and West) showing WHY the Orthodox interpretation, is being disputed, and further discussion is coming.
What part of this statement “highlighted” do you not understand?steve-b:![]()
Why, then, did your bishops and theologians agree to statements that seem to contradict your point?to that point, the quotes I gave previously show the history of papal primacy, is there from the beginning, (showing quotes from the 1st 300 yrs from ECF’s East and West) showing WHY the Orthodox interpretation, is being disputed, and further discussion is coming.