S
SolaFide
Guest
Oh, I love the Hebrew language…let’s have some fun!!!
There are three Hebrew words Isaiah could have used in this passage: Isaiah 7:1-17 esp. verse 14.
1)“Na’a’rah”-means damsel and can refer to either a virgin as in 1 Kings 1:12 or a non-virgin as in Ruth 2:6
b) In Genesis 24:16 because the word does not exclusively mean a virgin, the author adds the description “had not known a man” in order to clarify what he meant
c) In Judges 21:12 the author again gives a descriptive phrase for clarification to give precise meaning.
b) Exod. 2:8 Used in reference to Moses’ sister Miriam who was a virgin
c) Psalm 68:25 Used in reference to a royal procession of virgins. Since the King in this context is God, Himself, absolute virginity is required.
d) Song of Solomon/Songs 1:3 The context is purity in marriage
e) SoS 6:8 The word is used in contrast to concubines and wives who would not be virgins
f) Proverbs 30:18-19 The word is used in 19 in contrast to an adulteress in verse 20
g) Isaiah 7:14 Since all of the above other references in the OT mean “virgin” what reason do we have for making an exception with this verse?
Since we have established that the Hebrew word “almah” means virgin, unmarried woman, then if the woman in Isaiah 7:14 were a non-virgin then God would be sanctioning a promised sign from fornication and illegitimacy. It is unthinkable that God would do such a thing.
Also in the Septuagint (Greek translation of the OT) the translators use the word “parthenos” to describe the young woman and it very clearly and is exclusively translated to mean “virgin.”
There are three Hebrew words Isaiah could have used in this passage: Isaiah 7:1-17 esp. verse 14.
1)“Na’a’rah”-means damsel and can refer to either a virgin as in 1 Kings 1:12 or a non-virgin as in Ruth 2:6
- “Betulah” - is commonly considered to mean “virgin” exclusively and many argue that if Isaiah had meant “virgin” then why didn’t he use this word? Well, it does often mean “virgin” but not ALWAYS:
b) In Genesis 24:16 because the word does not exclusively mean a virgin, the author adds the description “had not known a man” in order to clarify what he meant
c) In Judges 21:12 the author again gives a descriptive phrase for clarification to give precise meaning.
- “Almah” - the word used in Isaiah 7:14 means: “a virgin” " a young virgin" or “a virgin of marriageable age.” The word is used 7 times in the Hebrew Tanakh (Old Testament) and NOT ONCE is it used to describe a married woman:
b) Exod. 2:8 Used in reference to Moses’ sister Miriam who was a virgin
c) Psalm 68:25 Used in reference to a royal procession of virgins. Since the King in this context is God, Himself, absolute virginity is required.
d) Song of Solomon/Songs 1:3 The context is purity in marriage
e) SoS 6:8 The word is used in contrast to concubines and wives who would not be virgins
f) Proverbs 30:18-19 The word is used in 19 in contrast to an adulteress in verse 20
g) Isaiah 7:14 Since all of the above other references in the OT mean “virgin” what reason do we have for making an exception with this verse?
Since we have established that the Hebrew word “almah” means virgin, unmarried woman, then if the woman in Isaiah 7:14 were a non-virgin then God would be sanctioning a promised sign from fornication and illegitimacy. It is unthinkable that God would do such a thing.
Also in the Septuagint (Greek translation of the OT) the translators use the word “parthenos” to describe the young woman and it very clearly and is exclusively translated to mean “virgin.”
. 