The Virgin Mary

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Joey,

I decided a long time ago to take what people say in a positive way.

So I will thank you for the compliment. :blushing:
 
Ginger said: The Bible says, "… for your Father knoweth what things ye have need of, before ye ask him. (Mat 6:8)
Great Point! Now if you isolated that verse from the rest of the verses surrounding it…?

I’ll become an Atheist for a moment…if you will indulge me.

If God knoweth my needs before I ask, then what is the point of asking in the first place? For that matter what is the point of prayer at all?

In conjunction with this verse

Mat 7:7 Ask, and it shall be given you; seek, and ye shall find; knock, and it shall be opened unto you:

Is the above verse “ABSOLUTE TRUTH” or just something else?

As an Atheist I would say that verse is a load of bull.

But as a christian I recognize that the “Shall” is subjunctive, meaing that it is a conditional and it is conditional with respect to the context of the whole bible and it’s message of Salvation.

And part of that salvation is message is Matt 6:9 After this manner therefore pray ye: Our Father…**Thy will be done in earth, as it is in heaven…**Amen.

Shall and Will

A straight up question from scripture.

Act 16:30 And brought them out, and said, Sirs, what must I do to be saved?

Act 16:31 And they said, Believe on the Lord Jesus Christ, and thou shalt be saved, and thy house.

An assurance of salvation would have rendered something like this, if mere believing alone is sufficient:

And they said, Believe on the Lord Jesus Christ and thou are saved.

or

And they said, Believe on the Lord Jesus Christ and thou be saved.

But note that inserted that “contingency qualifier” known as Shalt, Shall, or will.

Shalt(Shall) Primary definition
1.plan to, intend to, or expect to: I shall go later.

*—Usage note *The traditional rule of usage guides dates from the 17th century and says that to denote future time shall is used in the first person (I shall leave. We shall go) and will in all other persons (You will be there, won’t you? He will drive us to the airport. They will not be at the meeting). The rule continues that to express determination, will is used in the first person (We will win the battle) and shall in the other two persons (You shall not bully us. They shall not pass). Whether this rule was ever widely observed is doubtful. Today, will is used overwhelmingly in all three persons and in all types of speech and writing both for the simple future and to express determination. Shall has some use in all persons, chiefly in formal writing or speaking, to express determination: *I shall return. We shall overcome. *Shall also occurs in the language of laws and directives: *All visitors shall observe posted regulations. *Most educated native users of American English do not follow the textbook rule in making a choice between shall and will.

Subjunctive: sub·junc·tive http://cache.lexico.com/g/d/premium.gif cache.lexico.com/g/d/speaker.gif (səb-jŭngk’tĭv) Pronunciation Key
adj. Of, relating to, or being a mood of a verb used in some languages for contingent or hypothetical action, action viewed subjectively, or grammatically subordinate statements.
 
The mystery of hypostatic union defines Jesus to be at once fully God and fully man. Two separate natures in one Person. But what it does not say is that His humanity became divine and His divinity became human. For then He would be neither “fully” God or “fully” man, but instead some kind of a human hybrid.

Actually, “Theotokos” states that the Son Mary bore took on divinity. Not true. But God, the eternal Son, took on humanity - with all its limitations, yet did not surrender His divinity.
Apophasis, or is it Nestorious, I understand perfectly well what you say. It’s not what I want to believe you have said, or maybe you don’t really know what you’re saying. 😉 What I have retained above outlines your entire position: You claim that Mary is the mother of only Jesus’ human nature (his humanity), she is not the mother of one person, Jesus, who has both a divine and human nature. Mothers bear persons, not natures, unless there were two persons - one human and one divine - co-habiting the body of the historical Jesus. This claim is heretical: Nestorianism is a fifth century heresy claiming that there are two distinct persons in the incarnate Christ, one human and one divine. (This form resolves the problem of having a single hybrid being.) The Catholic Church teaches that Christ was and is a divine person who took on a human nature; He did not take on divinity when Mary bore him:

“THE CHILD TO BE BORN WILL BE CALLED HOLY, THE SON OF GOD.” {LUKE 1:35)

GOD SENT HIS SON, BORN OF A WOMAN { GALATIANS 4:4 }

Nestorious contended that Mary could not really have been the mother of God, but only the mother of a human being conjoined to God. (For mothers bear persons.) She was the mother of only a full human being conjoined with a full divine being co-habiting one body. The Council of Ephesus condemned the bishop’s heresy in 431 A.D. ( 2 Pet 3:16).

What you have to say above about “the mystery of the hypostatic union” is in accord with Catholic dogma. But it does not support your claim that Mary is only the biological mother of the human nature of Christ and not the mother of one person with two natures. Basically, the question is this: Is Mary the mother of only the human nature of Christ, or is she the mother of the single person of Christ with two natures? Since her motherhood of Jesus is not merely biological - she had a maternal relationship with the divine person Jesus - she is the mother of the Person, not merely the biological mother of his human nature. Let’s not conclude that there were two “full” persons existing together in one body. That is what Nestorious heretically concluded to get rid of the hybrid being. He constructed a human being while preserving a divine being who had entered the world, distorting the Gospel of John:

THE WORD BECAME FLESH. { JOHN 1:14 }

He did not take on divinity, but took on a human nature as one distinct person “born” of the virgin Mary. {Cf. Isaiah 7:14} Born of Mary “God is with us” in the person of Emmanuel.

" AND HOW DOES THIS HAPPEN TO ME, THAT THE MOTHER OF MY LORD SHOULD COME TO ME?" { LUKE 1:43 }

Elizabeth’s use of “mother of my Lord” ( Theotokos) is equivalent to “Holy Mary, mother of God” which Catholics use when addressing Mary in the recitation of the Rosary. Elizabeth used the word ‘Adonai’ which is Hebrew meaning Lord God. The Greek translation is ‘Kyrios’ which means the same: Yahweh.

Obviously, Mary did not conceive the divine nature of Christ. Nor did Mary beget the second Person of the Holy Trinity. He is eternally begotten of the Father. Biologically she is the efficient cause of the human nature of Christ. But she has been given by God the formal role of mother of Jesus Christ, who is one person with two natures: divine and human. She cannot be the mother of only half a person or the mother of two persons in one shell. So it can be truly said that Mary is the Mother of God. 👍

:irish3: “I’ll drink to that!”

“ETERNALLY ‘BEGOTTEN’ OF THE FATHER…HE WAS CONCEIVED BY THE POWER OF THE HOLY SPIRIT AND ‘BORN’ OF THE VIRGIN MARY.”

The Council of Nicea (A.D. 325)

Pax vobiscum
Good Fella :cool:
 
Joey,

I decided a long time ago to take what people say in a positive way.

So I will thank you for the compliment. :blushing:
It definitely was a compliment. I would take it as such if it was directed at me.

A direct word for the word used in the Greek for the English rendering of “Faith” is “Conviction” For one to have ultimate conviction one should be tenacious as well.🙂
 
ricmat: “So there can’t be 2, or 3, or 10 or 100 in heaven who know our needs before we do?”

Only if God informs them.

“Since heaven is outside of time, those in heaven can look into our past, present, and future simultaneously. They can all know our needs before we do.”

Only if God allows them.

“The article is quite good and not long. Don’t get hung up on this issue.”

I did finish the article.
Yes, only if God informs them. I can agree with that!

I hope you enjoyed the article, even if you don’t agree with it 100%. 🙂
 
Joey,

I believe in absolute truth.
Act 16:31 And they said, Believe on the Lord Jesus Christ, and thou shalt be saved, and thy house.

But, not everyone understands what it means to “believe”.

To believe in Jesus is more than just believing a man named Jesus once lived. If you really believe you will also behave as one who believes.

For example, if you really believed your house was unsafe and would cave in on you tonight and kill you - you would get it repaired ASAP not not sleep there until then. If you really believed you would buy the winning Lottery ticket today, you would actually go and but one.

Surely, if you REALLY believed, your belief would be accompanied by action, right. You are not saved because of your deeds, but your deeds naturally flow from your belief.

So, to say “I believe” and have it mean nothing is not really believing.

I do agree, you need to take the whole Bible not just bits and pieces. The whole Bible is understandable. Bits and pieces can be very confusing.
 
But, not everyone understands what it means to “believe”.
Amen.
To believe in Jesus is more than just believing a man named Jesus once lived. If you really believe you will also behave as one who believes.
Amen to that as well. You are one of a few protestants that i have come across that have this understanding.

So why is it you are not Catholic? Oh yes those blimey Marian Doctrines…:o
 
The term Mother of God, as used by the Catholic church, comes from the Greek word, Theotokos.
I think some of our non-catholic friends here are misunderstanding the sense in which the Catholic Church uses the term Mother of God.

When we say that Mary was God’s Mother, we do NOT believe
that she is the SOURCE of the 2nd person of the Holy Trinity,
she is not the ORIGINATOR of the 2nd person of the Holy Trinity.
To believe such a thing would be fundamentally to misunuderstand what motherhood is, since all mothers only carry their children. No mother has ever been the “source” of her child. God is the source of all children. It is God who creates the child in the womb, using DNA from the mother’s egg and the father’s sperm. The child’s soul is created directly by God, in the union of the sperm and the egg.

In Jesus’ case, His soul already existed, so no sperm was necessary - Mary’s egg was sufficient for Him.
What we mean is that the 2nd person of the Holy Trinity
hypostatically united inseparably to the human nature he took
from Mary in her womb so that she carried in her womb
God the Son hypostatically united to human nature.
Thus, she BORE the God Man into the World, hence,
Theotokos or God-bearer.
👍
But she is not the “originator” of the Divine Nature of Jesus, she BORE him, God lived in her womb united to a human nature, just as he, God, lived OUTSIDE her womb on earth for 33 years in his human body as the God-Man. He was the God-Man outside her womb just as he was the God-Man INSIDE her womb for nine months.
Just in the same way, our own mothers are not the “originators” of our human nature. We receive our human nature by being created by God, in the image and likeness of God. (Genesis 1:26-27)

Our mothers only bear us in their wombs. This is what motherhood is. So, to say that Mary is the mother of God should in no way cause any thinking person to believe that somehow Mary created God, since no mother in the whole history of the universe has ever created her child.
 
Apophasis, or is it Nestorious, I understand perfectly well what you say. It’s not what I want to believe you have said, or maybe you don’t really know what you’re saying. 😉 What I have retained above outlines your entire position: You claim that Mary is the mother of only Jesus’ human nature (his humanity), she is not the mother of one person, Jesus, who has both a divine and human nature. Mothers bear persons, not natures, unless there were two persons - one human and one divine - co-habiting the body of the historical Jesus. This claim is heretical: Nestorianism is a fifth century heresy claiming that there are two distinct persons in the incarnate Christ, one human and one divine. (This form resolves the problem of having a single hybrid being.) The Catholic Church teaches that Christ was and is a divine person who took on a human nature; He did not take on divinity when Mary bore him:

“THE CHILD TO BE BORN WILL BE CALLED HOLY, THE SON OF GOD.” {LUKE 1:35)

GOD SENT HIS SON, BORN OF A WOMAN { GALATIANS 4:4 }

Nestorious contended that Mary could not really have been the mother of God, but only the mother of a human being conjoined to God. (For mothers bear persons.) She was the mother of only a full human being conjoined with a full divine being co-habiting one body. The Council of Ephesus condemned the bishop’s heresy in 431 A.D. ( 2 Pet 3:16).

What you have to say above about “the mystery of the hypostatic union” is in accord with Catholic dogma. But it does not support your claim that Mary is only the biological mother of the human nature of Christ and not the mother of one person with two natures. Basically, the question is this: Is Mary the mother of only the human nature of Christ, or is she the mother of the single person of Christ with two natures? Since her motherhood of Jesus is not merely biological - she had a maternal relationship with the divine person Jesus - she is the mother of the Person, not merely the biological mother of his human nature. Let’s not conclude that there were two “full” persons existing together in one body. That is what Nestorious heretically concluded to get rid of the hybrid being. He constructed a human being while preserving a divine being who had entered the world, distorting the Gospel of John:

THE WORD BECAME FLESH. { JOHN 1:14 }

He did not take on divinity, but took on a human nature as one distinct person “born” of the virgin Mary. {Cf. Isaiah 7:14} Born of Mary “God is with us” in the person of Emmanuel.

" AND HOW DOES THIS HAPPEN TO ME, THAT THE MOTHER OF MY LORD SHOULD COME TO ME?" { LUKE 1:43 }

Elizabeth’s use of “mother of my Lord” ( Theotokos) is equivalent to “Holy Mary, mother of God” which Catholics use when addressing Mary in the recitation of the Rosary. Elizabeth used the word ‘Adonai’ which is Hebrew meaning Lord God. The Greek translation is ‘Kyrios’ which means the same: Yahweh.

Obviously, Mary did not conceive the divine nature of Christ. Nor did Mary beget the second Person of the Holy Trinity. He is eternally begotten of the Father. Biologically she is the efficient cause of the human nature of Christ. But she has been given by God the formal role of mother of Jesus Christ, who is one person with two natures: divine and human. She cannot be the mother of only half a person or the mother of two persons in one shell. So it can be truly said that Mary is the Mother of God. 👍

:irish3: “I’ll drink to that!”

“ETERNALLY ‘BEGOTTEN’ OF THE FATHER…HE WAS CONCEIVED BY THE POWER OF THE HOLY SPIRIT AND ‘BORN’ OF THE VIRGIN MARY.”

The Council of Nicea (A.D. 325)

Pax vobiscum
Good Fella :cool:
Apophasis, of course you do not believe that there were two persons in the one body of Jesus, but this conclusion can be drawn as it was by Nestorious. However, what you believe borders on Nestorianism. You are saying that Mary has no role in the motherhood of the entire person of Jesus. You represent her as if she were only the biological mother of the human nature of Jesus, his humanity, as if motherhood were nothing other than a biological function. You deny that her motherhood of the whole person Jesus also had a formal role. By implication, all mothers simply serve a biological function, with no formal role of motherhood given to them by God over their children.

ewtn.com/faith/teachings/maryc1.htm

Pax vobiscum
Good Fella :cool:
 
Good Fella:
What I have retained above outlines your entire position:
No it doesn’t.
You claim that Mary is the mother of only Jesus’ human nature (his humanity), she is not the mother of one person, Jesus, who has both a divine and human nature.
I said no such thing. Rather than cut and paste go back and read it again.
Nestorianism is a fifth century heresy claiming that there are two distinct persons in the incarnate Christ, one human and one divine.
And I never said He was two “persons.”
Nestorious contended that Mary could not really have been the mother of God, but only the mother of a human being conjoined to God. (For mothers bear persons.) She was the mother of only a full human being conjoined with a full divine being co-habiting one body.
More accurately, co-habiting one PERSON. His body was part and parcel of His humanity, not His divinity. His body was/is fully human. It suffered pain and death. As I said before, His humanity did not take on divinity, otherwise He would not be fully man.

Now I understand completely why the Council of Ephesus (not Scripture) accorded to Mary the title, “Mother of God.” They tried to emphasize His deity from the moment of His conception. But that title was most unfortunate because it wasn’t guarded or used with great caution. And so by the 6th century many false notions about Mary became very popular and were embraced by many in the church itself (remember the Biblical principle “a little leaven leavens the whole lump,” Gal. 5:9).

The unfortunate title “Mother of God” carried too many false connotations. And so rather than exalt Jesus, it opened wide the door to exalt Mary instead. Historically seen by men placing her in a juxtaposition with Jesus Himself and consequently transforming “the faith which once for all delivered to the saints” into just another Mother/Child religion. Notice all the Marian doctrines parallel Christ?

The God-breathed (theopneustos) Scriptures never call Mary the “Mother of God.” She is always referred to as the mother of Jesus. Divinity has no mother - then, now or ever. Men should never go where God’s Word doesn’t take them.
Elizabeth’s use of “mother of my Lord” ( Theotokos) is equivalent to “Holy Mary, mother of God” which Catholics use when addressing Mary in the recitation of the Rosary. Elizabeth used the word ‘Adonai’ which is Hebrew meaning Lord God. The Greek translation is ‘Kyrios’ which means the same: Yahweh.
The Greek word “kurios” is translated “Lord.” “Theos” is translated “God.” The Greek word used for “mother” in Lk. 1:43 is “meter.” Where do you find “theotokos” in Lk. 1:43?
Obviously, Mary did not conceive the divine nature of Christ.
Yes. Yet she conceived and gave birth to a son who was divine - a mystery.
Nor did Mary beget the second Person of the Holy Trinity.
Yet the Son who was born to her is - a mystery.
He is eternally begotten of the Father
Actually, He’s the “only” begotten of the Father (Jn. 1:14, 18; 3:16, 18).
Biologically she is the efficient cause of the human nature of Christ. But she has been given by God the formal role of mother of Jesus Christ, who is one person with two natures: divine and human.
I agree. And Joseph was given the role as His father (Lk. 2:33; 48).
She cannot be the mother of only half a person or the mother of two persons in one shell. So it can be truly said that Mary is the Mother of God.
You were doing well. You should have stopped when you were ahead. It is true that Jesus is ONE Person with TWO natures, but Mary is biologically connected to only one of them. Hint - she’s not divine.
 
Good Fella:
Third, another faulty criterion on which you base your unbelief in Catholic Marian doctrines is ‘sola scriptura’. In order for us to prove that these doctrines are true, we must present literal and explicit writings from the Bible.
I didn’t ask you to do that at all. Why would I ask you to do the impossible??? There are no passages in Scripture that explicitly, or even implicitly, teach Mary’s IC, perpetual sinlessness, perpetual virginity, bodily assumption into heaven or her heavenly coronation as Queen once she arrived there. ALL the aforementioned Marian doctrines developed over time AFTER the Apostolic age and long AFTER the N.T. Scriptures were written. Although many have tried to prove her IC by pouring that fully developed doctrine into one Greek word: ketcharitomene (Lk. 1:28). And the fully developed doctrine of her heavenly “queenship” into a few verses in Rev. 12 where the woman mentioned there is never even seen in heaven but remains on earth.

But what I need from you is objective proof that those Marian doctrines were actually taught and handed down to us by the Apostles.

NONE of the authors of those post-Apostolic writings claim there assertions about Mary were taught by and passed down by the Apostles themselves. So prove to me that they’re not just the personal, fanatical sentiments of those men, a product of their fertile imaginations.
For you Sacred Tradition holds no authority as part of the deposit of faith; nothing that exists in the traditional teachings of the Church can serve as explicit revelation if a teaching isn’t obviously clear to begin with in the written texts.
Again, those doctrines aren’t in the written Text. What I’m asking for is proof that they truly were part of the original “deposit of faith”:Jude 1:3 "Beloved, while I was making every effort to write you about our common salvation, I felt the necessity to write to you appealing that you contend earnestly for the faith which was (past tense) once for all (not continually) handed down to the saints.So, to which Apostle(s) was it revealed that Mary was IC’d?
Yet the scriptures prove that the doctrine of ‘sola scriptura’ is false:
I am not debating with you the validity of sola scriptura.
These things have been preserved in the oral apostolic tradition and they are equally a part of the deposit of faith although they have not been written. Who knows what Jesus said to his apostles about his mother that was to be kept silent.
Well, if they were to be silent, then you’re right, “who knows?” And if they were instructed by Jesus to keep silent, are you then suggesting the Apostles went against Christ’s orders? GF, you’re just speculating all over the place. You’re not presenting REAL arguments here.
The first century Christians had already produced frescoes in the catacombs depicting Mary as the Mother of the Church, the Mother of Christ, and Mediatrix. How were these beliefs formed and communicated if not through the Bible which was not yet completed by that time?
I don’t know what’s written on those walls. I’ve never been there. But if I take for granted what you say is true, when were they actually written? Many had access to those tunnels throughout the centuries. But still, how do you know they’re not just the misguided sentiments of those people. You can’t just assign Apostolic origin to them. Are you suggesting that Christian doctrines are to be formed from writings found on tunnel walls?

As for the “Bible,” all the manuscripts that make up the N.T. were finished within the first century. Those Marian doctrines didn’t begin to develop until later.
 
The God-breathed (theopneustos) Scriptures never call Mary the “Mother of God.” She is always referred to as the mother of Jesus. Divinity has no mother - then, now or ever. Men should never go where God’s Word doesn’t take them.The Greek word “kurios” is translated “Lord.” “Theos” is translated “God.” The Greek word used for “mother” in Lk. 1:43 is “meter.” Where do you find “theotokos” in Lk. 1:43?
Of couse divinity has no mother in the sense that it does not have a source from which it is derived. But the person in Mary’s womb was a divine person who took a human nature. Jesus if fully God. Mary carried God in her womb for nine months, Mary gave birth to God, and Mary nursed and raised God. Therefore, she is logically the mother of God. Our souls are not created by our mothers nor is its source our mothers. Do we say then that our mothers are only the mothers of our bodies? No.

God Bless,
Michael
 
Apophasis, of course you do not believe that there were two persons in the one body of Jesus, but this conclusion can be drawn as it was by Nestorious.
No it can’t. Only if you’re trying real hard to make me a heretic.
However, what you believe borders on Nestorianism.
No it doesn’t. Two persons vs. two natures are not remotely the same.
You are saying that Mary has no role in the motherhood of the entire person of Jesus.
I said no such thing.
You represent her as if she were only the biological mother of the human nature of Jesus, his humanity, as if motherhood were nothing other than a biological function. You deny that her motherhood of the whole person Jesus also had a formal role. By implication, all mothers simply serve a biological function, with no formal role of motherhood given to them by God over their children.
What you fail to understand, GF, is that Jesus functioned as a MAN while on earth, not as God. He willfully submitted Himself to both His earthly mother and father (Lk. 2:51), and walked His entire human life on earth in complete obedience to His heavenly Father, even obedience to death on a cross (Phil. 2:5-8).
 
Of couse divinity has no mother in the sense that it does not have a source from which it is derived. But the person in Mary’s womb was a divine person who took a human nature.
The Child that Mary conceived and developed in her womb was both fully human and fully divine.
Jesus is fully God. Mary carried God in her womb for nine months, Mary gave birth to God, and Mary nursed and raised God.
Mary carried a male child in her womb and gave birth, nursed and raised a male child.
Therefore, she is logically the mother of God.
She was logically the mother of a male Child.
Our souls are not created by our mothers nor is its source our mothers. Do we say then that our mothers are only the mothers of our bodies? No.
Mysteriously the eternal Son received His humanity (body, soul and spirit) through the virgin birth. Christ’s body is a part of His humanity, not His divinity. The incarnated Son was miraculously born fully Man to which Mary was biologically connected.
 
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mikeledes:
Jesus is fully God. Mary carried God in her womb for nine months, Mary gave birth to God, and Mary nursed and raised God. Therefore, she is logically the mother of God.
That is a form of the heresy of monophysitism: that Christ had one nature—divine. That’s what happens when one places undue emphasis on Christ’s divinity, to the overshadowing, or exclusion of His humanity.
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mikeledes:
Therefore, she is logically the mother of God.
Actually, that’s logically inconsistent. The scriptural testimony is that Jesus is fully God, and fully man, and that His mother is Mary; therefore, the consistent statement is that Mary is the mother of Jesus, who is fully God, and fully man. 🙂
 
That is a form of the heresy of monophysitism: that Christ had one nature—divine. That’s what happens when one places undue emphasis on Christ’s divinity, to the overshadowing, or exclusion of His humanity.

Actually, that’s logically inconsistent. The scriptural testimony is that Jesus is fully God, and fully man, and that His mother is Mary; therefore, the consistent statement is that Mary is the mother of Jesus, who is fully God, and fully man. 🙂
Are you stalking me! 😃 Now* that’s *a straw man. Have I said that Jesus only has one nature? Of course I know Jesus is fully God and fully man. Mary is the mother of the God-man. What I said was that it was a divine person that took upon a human nature, not a human person who became divine. There is only one person, not two persons in Christ. That would be the heresy of Nestorianism. The two natures are united in one person (i.e. hypostatic union). You don’t give birth to a nature. You give birth to a person. Mary gave birth to a divine person with a human nature. Mary gave birth to God. Last time I checked, the person who gives birth to you is, biologically speaking, your mother.

God Bless,
Michael
 
The Child that Mary conceived and developed in her womb was both fully human and fully divine.Mary carried a male child in her womb and gave birth, nursed and raised a male child.She was logically the mother of a male Child.Mysteriously the eternal Son received His humanity (body, soul and spirit) through the virgin birth. Christ’s body is a part of His humanity, not His divinity. The incarnated Son was miraculously born fully Man to which Mary was biologically connected.
Yes, and that male child is God. God took on a human nature, but He did not cease being God. Jesus was God prior to being conceived in Mary’s womb, He was God at conception, He was God during the nine months in Mary’s woman, He was God when she gave birth to Him, and He was God when Mary nursed and raised Him like any good mother would do. He was fully human, but He never ceased being God. Jesus is a divine person who took a human nature, not a human person who took a divine nature. Nor are there two separate persons within Christ.

God Bless,
Michael
 
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mikeledes:
Are you stalking me!
:yup:
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mikeledes:
You don’t give birth to a nature. You give birth to a person. Mary gave birth to a divine person with a human nature. Mary gave birth to God.

Jesus is a divine person…not a human person.
You’re doing it again, Mike. 🙂

Mary gave birth to A PERSON—Jesus—who is fully God, and fully Man. 😉
 
You should have stopped when you were ahead. It is true that Jesus is ONE Person with TWO natures, but Mary is biologically connected to only one of them. Hint - she’s not divine.
Where was Christ’s divine nature, when Mary was carrying Him in her womb and giving birth to Him, and nurturing Him and raising Him?
 
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mikeledes:
Yes, and that male child is God. God took on a human nature, but He did not cease being God.
Agreed. But it was His humanity that needed the milk from her breasts, to grow in strength and wisdom [Lk. 2:40), and to learn obedience from the things He suffered (Heb. 5:8), not His deity.
Jesus was God prior to being conceived in Mary’s womb, He was God at conception, He was God during the nine months in Mary’s woman, He was God when she gave birth to Him, and He was God when Mary nursed and raised Him like any good mother would do. He was fully human, but He never ceased being God.You’re stating the obvious and not making a new point.

Jesus is a divine person who took a human nature, not a human person who took a divine nature.
As to the part that humanity did not take on divinity, I already stated and emphasized that.

But now THINK about what you just said. Deity took on humanity. For what purpose??? To be born, suckled, and raised to adulthood and function on earth as deity? No, my friend, but as A MAN.

Catholics long ago lost sight of this wonder by putting undue emphasis on Mary. As Sandusky pointed out, you put undue emphasis on His divinity to the overshadowing and exlcusion of His humanity - the very purpose for which the Son came into this world.

The wonder of it all is not that He was deity (amazing as that is), but that He was fully man (not a hybrid), and functioned on earth in all ways perfect as fully man; and as the perfect man surrendered in obedience His fully human body over to suffering and death: God’s perfect blood sacrifice for the eternal redemption of imperfect, sinful mankind.

This is true Christianity. It is not a Mother/Child religion. The nonbiblical title of “theotokos” robs from the glory of Christ’s humanity. Yes! His humanity. God accomplished eternal redemption through Christ’s humanity. True, an infinite redemption because of His deity, but accomplished in space and time through His humanity.
 
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