Not necessarily. She was referring to the guests already complaining that they didn’t have wine.
Where does it say she was referring to the guests already complaining?
It does not say, “Mary
complained to Jesus: ‘there’s no more wine’”, nor does the text say “The guests complained to Mary that there was no wine, and so she approached Jesus.”
No where in the text does it say anything about complaining or about other guests. If you read the text as it is, it just reads that Mary noticed there was no more wine and out of charity approached her son ( who she knew was “gifted”, to say the least).
This question is so full of suspiction and so ill-done that anyone who has a mind of his own can see that a Jewish loving son would not address to his mother that way. We can well see the hand of the editor interpolating that nasty reply.
This is not the only instance where Jesus refers to his mother as “woman”.
That’s the easiest of your questions. Simply because the author of this gospel was not John the Apostle, but one of the Gentiles disciple of Paul.
How does this answer my question? I realize that the Gospel of John was not written by John (as John would be
long dead by the time this was written). Telling me that doesn’t even begin to address the issue. Let me rephrase: why would the
writer of the Gospel, who so obviously likes to use Jesus’ name as much as possible, refer to Jesus as something he had never referred to him as before? It doesn’t make sense from a stylistic perspective.
The editor used the word “invited” but the real term is “called.” Jesus was called.
Again, where is your source? What original document are you reading that says “called” and not “invited”? You argument is basically deconstructed by the fact that Jesus was invited. Who is to say he was not invited, but was, as you say, “called”. Where is your source? You really need one in order to make these allegations.
That’s a ceremonial calling, which means the responsibility over that woman to be handed over from the father unto the man to be married to her. Then, two witnesses take him to the Chupah. You know, the place where the couple will stand to be married by the Rabbi. I hope i helped you with this information.
I know how a Jewish wedding works. After everything is signed and plates are broken, the bridegroom is called over from the tish to the bride in quite a procession of song and dance, and then they proceed to the Chupah. That’s not what this text says though. The text says Jesus and his disciples “had also been invited to the wedding”. It does not say that at the wedding, Jesus was called from one room to another, which is what you are referring to. You are reading things that are not in the text.
However, as soon as you provide me with
your source, I’d be happy to look at it. I love a good bit of Apocrypha.
