C
Cross_carrier
Guest
Hi there,
I’ve been having trouble reconciling what John 1: 12-13 says about the invalidity of the ‘will of man’ in the (re)birth of the children of God in baptism and the necessity that the recipient of the sacrament to be willing to receive it. It is even more confusing when considering the parents’ will in the case of infant baptism.
I’ve been having trouble reconciling what John 1: 12-13 says about the invalidity of the ‘will of man’ in the (re)birth of the children of God in baptism and the necessity that the recipient of the sacrament to be willing to receive it. It is even more confusing when considering the parents’ will in the case of infant baptism.
Gospel of St. John Chapter 1 (Haydock)
12 But as many as received him, he gave to them power to be made the sons of God, to them that believe in his name.
Could it be that the passage refers only to God’s irreplicable act of cleansing us in baptism and not referring to man’s cooperation?13 Who are born, not of blood, nor of the will of flesh, nor of will of man, but of God.