O
OldeThom
Guest
Gosh, I’m not quite certain what you are trying to get me to say. Yes, I understand that about Mary as the Church teaches it. As far as I know, and what I have been taught all my life, is that there were only two human beings ever in a “pre-fallen” state, Adam and Eve, and they were sinless right up until they rebelled against God and all hell broke loose (pardon the metaphor.) You see, quite simply, my naive belief about Mary did not include her being free of sin just because God found her “full of grace”. It is a foreign concept to me. As was stated to me in an earlier message to me generated from this post forums.catholic-questions.org/showthread.php?t=262086OK, but Mary was not in the post-Fallen state - that is a core teaching of the Church. So, why would you expect that every human in the pre-Fallen state would sin, when we have the example of the pre-Fallen angels, not all of whom sinned?
“It isn’t necessary for us to believe that the Immaculate Conception was needed, only that we believe it is true, and by faith it actually happened.”
So I am not looking to prove or disprove anything, it is about belief: either it is true or it is not. There in lies my search and my prayer.
Respectfully,
Thom