A
Anna_Scott
Guest
Anna,
That topic has indeed been recently discussed. Here is part of my response previously:
BY was stating his own opinion in that entire instance, including his opinion you have cited at the end of his sermon that referred to the subject.
The president of the LDS church is not “greater” than the principle laid down by Joseph Smith through revelation, that united council leadership will participate in decisions that include the doctrinal teachings of the church. He is not authorized by his authority to differ from that principle. So since BY presented a teaching that was not authorized by that process, it is his own opinion and has no bearing on needing to be followed by anyone at all. Here is the applicable united council leadership principle presented in Doctrine and Covenants Section 107: . . . . .
ParkerD,So, we’re back to the same old answer. It is doctrine until someone down the line says it was just opinion.
Now, to the original question. Does a “prophet” have to say, “Thus saith The Lord.” in order for it to become official church teaching, or a doctrinal statement?
I appreciate the information. However, I agree with twopekinguys: I don’t see how your post clears up the issue of whether or not “Thus Saith the Lord,” preceding a prophets words, make the words binding as a true revelation from God.
I brought up the Adam/God theory to soren1; because he seems to be conducting a seminar on how to present controversial Mormon writings to Mormons.
Would you be willing to address soren1’s proposed techniques? He claims it is impossible for Mormons to “wiggle out,” when presented with the Adam-God issue in the form of a “question” such as: “Is the Adam-God doctrine better attested than the Gold Plates?” etc. I give you and our other Mormon brethren more credit than that.
Thanks,
Anna
Yeah, I know. I suspect that, in reality, it is easy to convince a Mormons that 100% of the available evidence supports Adam-God as stone-cold doctrine. Anyone can see that. What is not so easy is to convince them that they should care about that fact. That is why I emphasize the point about consistent standards. If the question is just “Is the evidence for Adam-God as compelling as a mathematical proof?” that can always find a reason to say, “No.” But if the question is something like “Is the Adam-God doctrine better attested than the Gold Plates?” it is impossible to wiggle out, because this question entails some moral accountability: one of the ethical responsibilities a person takes on him or herself when doing apologetics is a obey justice by having consistent standards. If a person has one standard for the way they treat evidence against Mormonism and another standard for favorable evidence, then they really are not doing evidential apologetics at all - and evidential argumentation constitutes probably over 90% of LDS apologetic work. If something as secure as the Adam-God evidence can be dismissed, then justice and consistency demands that any evidence favorable to Mormonism can be dismissed by the same standard. Thus the entire rational case for Mormonism must be sacrificed in order to avoid Adam-God without falling into hypocrisy.
When a person uses irrational argumentation, it does not show that they have been intellectual duped. More often, it demonstrates a moral flaw: a willingness to abandon reason reveals that the person has been deceived not intellectually but spiritually. So finding a way to move the argument into moral territory can help to reveal that fact more clearly, as the conversation leads to a challenge to accountability and repentance.