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PaulDupre1
Guest
The way that a LDS uses those terms, the answer to both questions is yes.So, are you suggesting that a faithful informed Catholic (yourself included it would seem) believe both of these things:
I could be wrong, but I do not agree. Anyone agree with Paul? I can quote Catholic apologists who disagree with him, but I thought it was universally accepted that this is not the case. Maybe I am wrong. Can someone correct me with some scholarly writing or Vatican writing or ???
- The Pope can write scripture.
- The Pope can receive public revelation.
Charity, TOm
But Catholics use those terms much differently. When the Pope, or an ecumenical council in union with the Pope, makes in infallible declaration, it is as binding on the faithful as is scripture. But since the apostolic age, whenever such a declaration is made, it is made to protect, defend and clarify what the Church has always taught and believed, and not to introduce a novel belief.
That I think is why we do not use words like “revelation” and “scripture” to describe the infallible declarations of the magisterium. We don’t want to give the mistaken impression that we are introducing something that has not been held by all the faithful since the apostolic age.
We simply believe that the Holy Spirit reminds the magisterium of all that Jesus said (John 14:26) and thereby leads the Church into all truth (John 16:13) as Jesus promised. Also see 2 Timothy 1:13.
If you wish to call that public revelation you are free to do so.
If you wish to call infallible pronouncements binding on all the faithful “scripture” then you are free to do so.
Just know that we do not use those terms because they give an inaccurate image of what the magisterium does.
There is nothing in the Catholic magisterium akin to the LDS prophet who can introduce novel beliefs and overturn the beliefs taught by earlier prophets.
Paul