To Protestants--do you ever pray the Rosary?

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Where did Jesus say that we should pray to him? He didn’t – he taught us to pray to the Father. Yet, most Christians do it. Some also pray to the Holy Spirit. Sola Scripture is not held by Catholics because its not biblical either.
Well it is Biblical to pray to God, right?

John 1:1,14 - In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth.

John 5:18 - Therefore the Jews sought the more to kill him, because he not only had broken the sabbath, but said also that God was his Father, making himself equal with God.

John 8:24 - I said therefore unto you, that ye shall die in your sins: for if ye believe not that I am he, ye shall die in your sins.
(In the Greek the word “he” is not there making it even more obvious that He is God, see Exodus 3:14… God is “I AM”)

John 8:58 - Jesus said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Before Abraham was, I am.

John 10:30-33 - I and my Father are one. Then the Jews took up stones again to stone him. Jesus answered them, Many good works have I shewed you from my Father; for which of those works do ye stone me? The Jews answered him, saying, For a good work we stone thee not; but for blasphemy; and because that thou, being a man, makest thyself God.

John 20:28 - And Thomas answered and said unto him, My LORD and my God.

Colossians 2:9 - For in him dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily.

He is also a direct recipient of prayer in the Bible… Throughout the Old Testament we see that calling upon the Lord signifies prayer (e.g. 1 Kings 18:24, Zechariah 13:9 and Joel 2:32).
In both 1 Corinthians 1:1-2 and Romans 10:13-14 we are told to call upon the name of our Lord Jesus Christ…
 
From Catholic Answers…"The Immaculate Conception

It’s important to understand what the doctrine of the Immaculate Conception is and what it is not. Some people think the term refers to Christ’s conception in Mary’s womb without the intervention of a human father; but that is the Virgin Birth. Others think the Immaculate Conception means Mary was conceived “by the power of the Holy Spirit,” in the way Jesus was, but that, too, is incorrect. The Immaculate Conception means that Mary, whose conception was brought about the normal way, was conceived without original sin or its stain—that’s what “immaculate” means: without stain. The essence of original sin consists in the deprivation of sanctifying grace, and its stain is a corrupt nature. Mary was preserved from these defects by God’s grace; from the first instant of her existence she was in the state of sanctifying grace and was free from the corrupt nature original sin brings.

When discussing the Immaculate Conception, an implicit reference may be found in the angel’s greeting to Mary. The angel Gabriel said, “Hail, full of grace, the Lord is with you” (Luke 1:28). The phrase “full of grace” is a translation of the Greek word kecharitomene. It therefore expresses a characteristic quality of Mary.

The traditional translation, “full of grace,” is better than the one found in many recent versions of the New Testament, which give something along the lines of “highly favored daughter.” Mary was indeed a highly favored daughter of God, but the Greek implies more than that (and it never mentions the word for “daughter”). The grace given to Mary is at once permanent and of a unique kind. Kecharitomene is a perfect passive participle of charitoo, meaning “to fill or endow with grace.” Since this term is in the perfect tense, it indicates that Mary was graced in the past but with continuing effects in the present. So, the grace Mary enjoyed was not a result of the angel’s visit. In fact, Catholics hold, it extended over the whole of her life, from conception onward. She was in a state of sanctifying grace from the first moment of her existence…"

Don’t know if that clarifies for NC’s
 
*I like your explanation lil_flower.

To me, when Jesus hung on the cross, breathing his last breaths, He looked at John, one of His Disciples, and said…‘Behold your mother; woman, behold your son.’ (John 19:25-27)

Right there, Jesus more than suggests that we are to consider His mother, OUR (spiritual)Mother. In that, we can ask for her prayers, as we would our own earthly mother. She will listen. In addition to us coming before Christ, with our prayers…She is too. It isn’t a diversion away from Christ, but rather a beautiful addition of grace offered to us, by merely spending time talking with Jesus’ blessed Mother.

That is how I see it, anyways. I think that Jesus’ words were to instruct Mary in a sense, to be a mother to us all…and for John, to look at Mary, as a mother to him, and to us all. *
Thank you whatevergirl. 🙂

That is indeed true. I believe that the more souls except Mary as their heavenly Mother, the closer they will be to Jesus! She brings them there through her beautiful intercession! :gopray: :love:
 
When discussing the Immaculate Conception, an implicit reference may be found in the angel’s greeting to Mary. The angel Gabriel said, “Hail, full of grace, the Lord is with you” (Luke 1:28). The phrase “full of grace” is a translation of the Greek word kecharitomene. It therefore expresses a characteristic quality of Mary.

The traditional translation, “full of grace,” is better than the one found in many recent versions of the New Testament, which give something along the lines of “highly favored daughter.” Mary was indeed a highly favored daughter of God, but the Greek implies more than that (and it never mentions the word for “daughter”). The grace given to Mary is at once permanent and of a unique kind. Kecharitomene is a perfect passive participle of charitoo, meaning “to fill or endow with grace.” Since this term is in the perfect tense, it indicates that Mary was graced in the past but with continuing effects in the present. So, the grace Mary enjoyed was not a result of the angel’s visit. In fact, Catholics hold, it extended over the whole of her life, from conception onward. She was in a state of sanctifying grace from the first moment of her existence…"
The New Testament was written in Greek, not in Latin. The phrase “full of grace” can only be found in the Vulgata translated by Jerome, not however in the Greek original.
(“Full of grace” is found in the Latin “Nova Vulgata”, the Italian “La Sacra Bibbia” and the Spanish “El Libro Del Pueblo De Dios”)
Hence most other translations that do not base on the Latin version do not have this kind of a wording…

Luke 1:28
New American Bible (Vatican.va) - And coming to her, he said, “Hail, favored one! The Lord is with you.”
NIV - The angel went to her and said, “Greetings, you who are highly favored! The Lord is with you.”
NASB - And coming in, he said to her, “Greetings, favored one! The Lord is with you.”
KJV - And the angel came in unto her, and said, Hail, thou that art highly favoured, the Lord is with thee: blessed art thou among women.
Young’s Literal Translation - And the messenger having come in unto her, said, `Hail, favoured one, the Lord [is] with thee; blessed [art] thou among women;’
La Bible du Semeur (French) - L’ange entra chez elle et lui dit: Réjouis-toi, toi à qui Dieu a accordé sa faveur: le Seigneur est avec toi.
La Nuova Diodati (Italian) - E l’angelo, entrato da lei, disse: «Salve, o grandemente favorita, il Signore è con te; tu sei benedetta fra le donne»
Reina-Valera 1960 (Spanish) - Y entrando el ángel en donde ella estaba, dijo: !!Salve, muy favorecida! El Señor es contigo; bendita tú entre las mujeres.
1881 Westcott-Hort New Testament (Greek) - και εισελθων προς αυτην ειπεν χαιρε κεχαριτωμενη (“highly favored one”) ο κυριος μετα σου

The Greek word kexaritomena (“κεχαριτωμενη”) means highly favored, make accepted, make graceful, etc. It does not mean “full of grace” which is “plaras karitos” (plaras = full and karitos = Grace) in the Greek.
5923 χαριτόω (charitoō): vb.; Str 5487; TDNT 9.372—LN 88.66 show kindness graciously give, freely give (Eph 1:6); as a passive participle, subst., “one highly favored.”
Source: Swanson, J., Dictionary of Biblical Languages with Semantic Domains: Greek New Testament, electronic ed., Oak Harbor: Logos Research Systems, 1997, kephale, GGK5923.
5487 χαριτόω [charitoo /khar·ee·to·o/] v. From 5485; TDNT 9:372; TDNTA 1298; GK 5923; Two occurrences; AV translates as “be highly favoured” once, and “make accepted” once. 1 to make graceful. 1a charming, lovely, agreeable. 2 to peruse with grace, compass with favour. 3 to honour with blessings.
Source: Strong, J., Strong’s Exhaustive Concordance of the Bible, electronic ed., Ontario: Woodside Bible Fellowship, 1996, GK5487.
 
***Just curious. I was praying the Rosary before work today, and thought…this is such a beautiful prayer! (I think this a lot when praying the Rosary) A time to ask Mary for her prayers, as she is close to Jesus. :o We don’t look to Mary as ‘divine,’ we ask her to pray for us, similiarly to how you might ask a friend to pray for you.

If you don’t, just curious if you have ever considered it? ***
I would like to adopt praying to Mary. I don’t know what a Rosary is though.😦
 
I read this and it made my ears prick up (or eyes widen, whatever the reading equivalent is), and I felt I needed to comment.

I think we can both agree that He, God, is God of the living, not of the dead (Luke 20:38), right? And for to Him, all are alive, right? And I think we can both agree that at death, the body dies but the soul/spirit lives on, right? So there is life after death, albeit in a different manner (“It’s life, Jim, but not as we know it” ;)).

In the Old Testament (this is relevant since we’re talking about “praying to the dead”) necromancy is forbidden, i.e. conjuring the dead to commune or attempt dialogue with the deceased. The Lord, in 1 Samuel 28:3-25, abandons King Saul (in disguise) because he has consulted the witch of Endor to commune with the prophet Samuel. God was angry at at King Saul because he failed to wait upon the Lord as God told him to. Now, when Catholics pray to the saints, we’re not actually attempting dialogue with them or expecting them to speak back; we’re simply asking them to pray for us because they are close to God; they intercede for us; all supplications are put to God.

In light of that: in Mark 15:34-36, as Jesus is hanging on the crucifix, he cries out to God, “Eloi, Eloi, lema sabachthani?” which is translated to, “My God, my God, why have you forsaken me?” but the bystanders mishear what Jesus uttered and believed he was crying out to Elijah:

“One of them ran, soaked a sponge with wine, put it on a reed, and gave it to him to drink, saying, ‘Wait, let us see if Elijah comes to take him down.’” (v36)

Don’t you think it’s strange, based on what they [mistakenly] heard, that instead of condemning Jesus for attempting to “commune with the dead” by calling out to Elijah, they waited to see if Elijah would actually come and take him down from the cross? Yes, Jesus calls out to his Father, but the bystanders don’t hear it that way.

Why didn’t the bystanders rebuke Jesus for the sin of necromancy if he was calling out to a "dead guy"?
“And one ran and filled a spunge full of vinegar, and put it on a reed, and gave him to drink, saying, Let alone; let us see whether Elias will come to take him down.”

They were too busy mocking him. Read this whole story again in Mark and in the other gospels also.
 
We are asking her to pray for us, not praying to her, hence we are asking for her intercession
I dont understand what the big problem is with that. God Bless! 🙂 (Catholics correct me if I am wrong as I am very tired 😛 )
 
“And one ran and filled a spunge full of vinegar, and put it on a reed, and gave him to drink, saying, Let alone; let us see whether Elias will come to take him down.”

They were too busy mocking him. Read this whole story again in Mark and in the other gospels also.
So were they [the onlookers and pharisees] too busy to also take note of what Jesus was uttering? If you’ll pay attention to the story, they stopped to see if Elijah would come down and save him. I don’t know about you, but when I’m busy doing something and I overhear something and for whatever reason it grabs my attention, I probably would stop whatever it was I was doing too.

Obviously they weren’t that caught up in making a mockery of Christ if they thought he was calling out to Elijah, a very important figure in their faith.
 
I used to pray the Rosery and it is a beautiful prayer. The reason I don’t pray the Rosery anymore is the Bible says in Matthew 5:7 “When you pray, don’t babble on and on as people for other religions do. Don’t be like them, because your Father knows exactly what you need even before you ask him!” Then in verse 9 he say to pray like this, then he says the Lords prayer, Our Father…
Now I have nothing against anyone praying the Rosery. As for me I don’t see the reason to repeat the samething over and over again. If I’m not mistaking it is repeated 50 times, 5 stations at 10 Hail Maries each. I could be wrong but I know I’m at least close to the numbers.
 
I used to pray the Rosery and it is a beautiful prayer. The reason I don’t pray the Rosery anymore is the Bible says in Matthew 5:7 “When you pray, don’t babble on and on as people for other religions do. Don’t be like them, because your Father knows exactly what you need even before you ask him!” Then in verse 9 he say to pray like this, then he says the Lords prayer, Our Father…
Now I have nothing against anyone praying the Rosery. As for me I don’t see the reason to repeat the samething over and over again. If I’m not mistaking it is repeated 50 times, 5 stations at 10 Hail Maries each. I could be wrong but I know I’m at least close to the numbers.
Would you feel uncomfortable praying the Lord’s prayer more than once? What about Jesus praying the same prayer three times in the garden of Gethsemane – do you think he was babbling on using vain repititions?

Matt 6:7 says " But when ye pray, use not vain repetitions, as the heathen do: for they think that they shall be heard for their much speaking."

Notice that Jesus is talking about **vain **repetitious prayer - not repetitious prayer as he himself used in the garden.
 
Would you feel uncomfortable praying the Lord’s prayer more than once? What about Jesus praying the same prayer three times in the garden of Gethsemane – do you think he was babbling on using vain repititions?

Matt 6:7 says " But when ye pray, use not vain repetitions, as the heathen do: for they think that they shall be heard for their much speaking."

Notice that Jesus is talking about **vain **repetitious prayer - not repetitious prayer as he himself used in the garden.
Excellent points. I also love your username! 🙂
 
Would you feel uncomfortable praying the Lord’s prayer more than once? What about Jesus praying the same prayer three times in the garden of Gethsemane – do you think he was babbling on using vain repititions?

Matt 6:7 says " But when ye pray, use not vain repetitions, as the heathen do: for they think that they shall be heard for their much speaking."

Notice that Jesus is talking about **vain **repetitious prayer - not repetitious prayer as he himself used in the garden.
Yes I would. Why would I need to say it put once? Matthew 26:39 says,“He fell face down on the ground, praying ’ My Father! If it is possible, let this cup of suffering be taken away from me. Yet I want your will, not mine.’”
Matthew 26:42 says, "Again he left them and prayed, “My Father! If this cup cannot be taken away until I drink it, your will be done.” Now if you notice they are 2 different prayers, the words are not the same, but it does say he went back a third time and said the same thing again. Now Jesus has already said 2 prayers with different words, It is very possible that when he prayed the third time he used different words just like the other 2, and not the same exact words. So no he wasn’t babbling. Now the 50 Hail Maries is the same words over and over again. See the difference.
Your version may say “vain repetitious prayers.” My version says “repeat their words.”
 
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