B
BartholomewB
Guest
One is the original, the other is a translation. That’s the starting point, though of course there are some other factors to be taken into consideration.I really don’t understand why for a Christian Bible that the Hebrew-based Old Testament is considered superior to the Greek-based Septuagint
We can find instances where present-day translators of the NT, instead of translating exactly what they see in the Greek text, revert instead to the original Hebrew form of an allusion or quotation. One example is Jesus’ reply to Peter in Matt 18:22. Should the number be shown in English as “seventy times seven,” i.e. 490, or as “seventy-seven”? This has been discussed on other threads:
Another numerical discrepancy, which is of particular interest because Jesus alludes to this verse in a well-known saying: Lamech’s threat in Gen. 4:14. In the Masoretic text, Lamech says "seventy-seven times” but in the Septuagint it’s “seventy times seven times.” (Warning: the Hebrew word order may show up reversed, thanks to my computer.) כִּ֥י שִׁבְעָתַ֖יִם יֻקַּם־ קָ֑יִן וְלֶ֖מֶךְ שִׁבְעִ֥ים וְשִׁבְעָֽה׃ ὅτι ἑπτάκις ἐκδεδίκηται ἐκ Καιν ἐκ δὲ Λαμεχ ἑβδομηκοντάκις ἑπτά These are the number…
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